UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Bill to codify IPS deputation in Central Armed Police Forces may be tabled in this session

Q1. Which of the five Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) under the Ministry of Home Affairs was established first?

  • A. Border Security Force
  • B. Indo-Tibetan Border Police
  • C. Central Reserve Police Force
  • D. Central Industrial Security Force

Q2. Within the Ministry of Home Affairs, which division is specifically designated to handle policy, personnel, operational deployment, and financial matters of all Central Armed Police Forces?

  • A. Police I Division
  • B. Internal Security Division
  • C. Border Management Division
  • D. Police II Division

Q3. In the context of IPS officer postings to Central Armed Police Forces, 'deputation' is most precisely characterised as which of the following?

  • A. Permanent absorption of an IPS officer into a CAPF cadre with simultaneous termination of IPS service
  • B. Temporary posting where the officer retains lien on the IPS cadre and reverts upon completion of a fixed tenure
  • C. A contractual secondment under which the officer surrenders seniority rights in both the parent cadre and the borrowing organisation
  • D. An emergency deployment without a fixed tenure, revocable solely at the discretion of the CAPF Director General

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the IPS deputation percentage norms for senior CAPF posts as codified under the Central Armed Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026. Which of the statements given above is NOT correct?

  1. Director General posts in CAPFs are to be filled 100% through IPS officer deputation.
  2. Special Director General posts in CAPFs are to be filled 100% through IPS officer deputation.
  3. Additional Director General posts in CAPFs must have a minimum of 50% IPS officer deputation.
  4. Inspector General posts in CAPFs must have a minimum of 50% IPS officer deputation.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3

Q5. According to the Supreme Court's landmark ruling of May 2025 on Central Armed Police Forces, up to which is the highest rank level at which the Court directed a phased reduction of IPS officer deputation?

  • A. Director General
  • B. Special Director General
  • C. Additional Director General
  • D. Inspector General

Q6. The Central Armed Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026, as introduced in Rajya Sabha during the Budget Session, covers how many Central Armed Police Forces?

  • A. 4
  • B. 5
  • C. 6
  • D. 7

Q7. Consider the following statements comparing the Central Armed Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026 with the pre-existing legal framework governing CAPFs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Prior to this Bill, no single unified statute governed the general administration of all five CAPFs collectively; each force was regulated by its own individual founding Act and executive orders.
  2. Unlike the individual CAPF founding Acts, the Bill explicitly empowers the Central Government to frame service rules that override conflicting court judgments and prior administrative orders.
  3. The Bill consolidates and formally replaces individual CAPF founding statutes such as the BSF Act 1968 and the CRPF Act 1949 into a single omnibus law.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. The Central Armed Forces (General Administration) Bill, 2026 has been criticised for using legislative action to remove the basis of a Supreme Court direction. Which constitutional provision most directly establishes the binding character of Supreme Court declarations that such legislative override is seen to challenge?

  • A. Article 131, which grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and States
  • B. Article 141, which declares the law laid down by the Supreme Court to be binding on all courts and authorities in India
  • C. Article 246, which delineates the subject matter of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
  • D. Article 368, which prescribes the procedure for amendment of the Constitution

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding entitlements that accrue to central government services upon recognition as Organised Group A Services (OGAS). Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Officers become eligible for Non-Functional Financial Upgradation (NFFU) linked to the seniority of IAS officers of the same recruitment year batch.
  2. Officers become eligible for automatic absorption into the Indian Administrative Service upon completing ten years of service.
  3. Promotions within the cadre are regulated through Departmental Promotion Committees with structured cadre review norms ensuring time-bound career progression.
  4. Officers are mandatorily required to complete at least two years of deputation to State governments before superannuation.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the longstanding grievances of CAPF Group A Executive Cadre officers in relation to the IPS deputation system. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. CAPF cadre officers face substantially longer promotion timelines than IPS officers at equivalent rank levels, with waits reported at 25–31 years compared to 13–21 years for IPS.
  2. The IPS deputation system structurally bars CAPF's own cadre officers from occupying apex posts such as Director General and Special Director General of their own forces.
  3. IPS deputation to CAPFs was introduced only after the 1991 economic liberalisation and represents a post-reform governance choice, not a historical administrative tradition.
  4. Over 18,000 CAPF Group A Executive Cadre officers have been engaged in litigation since 2009 demanding recognition as Organised Group A Services and parity in cadre management.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4