UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — National Biodiversity Authority Releases SOP for Scientific Identification and Notification of Threatened Species by States and Union Territories

Q1. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which one of the following is the sole apex (national-level) statutory body that occupies the highest tier of the Act's three-tier institutional structure?

  • A. National Biodiversity Authority
  • B. State Biodiversity Board
  • C. Biodiversity Management Committee
  • D. Union Territory Biodiversity Council

Q2. With reference to the institutional architecture of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, consider the following: 1. The National Biodiversity Authority is established under Section 8. 2. State Biodiversity Boards are constituted under Section 22. 3. Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted under Section 41. 4. People's Biodiversity Registers are prepared by the National Biodiversity Authority. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The National Biodiversity Authority is established under Section 8.
  2. State Biodiversity Boards are constituted under Section 22.
  3. Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted under Section 41.
  4. People's Biodiversity Registers are prepared by the National Biodiversity Authority.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. As reported at the release of the 2026 NBA Standard Operating Procedure, threatened species have so far been notified under Section 38 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 across how many States and Union Territories?

  • A. 16 States and 2 Union Territories
  • B. 17 States and 3 Union Territories
  • C. 18 States and 5 Union Territories
  • D. 20 States and 3 Union Territories

Q4. With reference to Section 38 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements: 1. The power to notify a threatened species vests in the Central Government. 2. The notification is issued in consultation with the concerned State Government. 3. The provision allows the prohibition or regulation of the collection of a notified species. 4. A species may be notified only after the IUCN has assessed it as Critically Endangered. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The power to notify a threatened species vests in the Central Government.
  2. The notification is issued in consultation with the concerned State Government.
  3. The provision allows the prohibition or regulation of the collection of a notified species.
  4. A species may be notified only after the IUCN has assessed it as Critically Endangered.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 1 and 2
  • D. 3 and 4

Q5. The 2026 Standard Operating Procedure for the scientific identification and notification of threatened species by States and Union Territories was released by which one of the following?

  • A. National Biodiversity Authority
  • B. Zoological Survey of India
  • C. Botanical Survey of India
  • D. National Board for Wildlife

Q6. As per the 2026 NBA SOP, consider whether the following bodies are envisaged as participants in identifying and validating threatened species: 1. Botanical Survey of India 2. Zoological Survey of India 3. Biodiversity Management Committees 4. Forest Survey of India Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Botanical Survey of India
  2. Zoological Survey of India
  3. Biodiversity Management Committees
  4. Forest Survey of India
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. The Red List of Threatened Species, widely used as a scientific reference for assessing extinction risk, is compiled and maintained by which one of the following organisations?

  • A. International Union for Conservation of Nature
  • B. United Nations Environment Programme
  • C. World Wide Fund for Nature
  • D. Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species

Q8. The IUCN Red List Categories and Criteria currently in standard use for classifying species' extinction risk correspond to which version?

  • A. Version 3.1
  • B. Version 2.3
  • C. Version 1.0
  • D. Version 4.0

Q9. The Nagoya Protocol, a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, deals primarily with which one of the following?

  • A. Access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their utilization
  • B. Safe transboundary movement of living modified organisms
  • C. Liability and redress for damage to biological diversity
  • D. Regulation of international trade in endangered species of wild fauna and flora

Q10. The National Biodiversity Authority's Guidelines on Access to Biological Resources and Associated Knowledge and Benefits Sharing, 2014, were framed as regulations under which provision of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

  • A. Section 21
  • B. Section 38
  • C. Section 8
  • D. Section 41

Q11. The institutional architecture for biodiversity governance established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 — spanning the Central Government, State Governments and local bodies — operates at how many tiers?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five