UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — The changing logic of the India-U.S. partnership

Q1. The reorientation of United States alliance policy towards a transactional, interest-first logic is anchored in a National Security Strategy of which year, and what does that document declare as the primary security goal of the United States?

  • A. 2022 — ensuring the security of the homeland, including preventing the flow of immigrants and of drugs
  • B. 2025 — restoring global dominance through forward-deployed alliances and expanded security guarantees
  • C. 2025 — ensuring the security of the homeland, including preventing the flow of immigrants and of drugs
  • D. 2022 — restoring global dominance through forward-deployed alliances and expanded security guarantees

Q2. With reference to how the current United States approach to India differs from the post-Cold War convergence-based framework, consider the following statements: 1. The 2025 U.S. National Security Strategy criticises past U.S. foreign policy for making the American public pay for the security of others in the period after the Cold War ended in 1991. 2. Under the present approach, the India partnership is framed less around strategic convergence and more around opening an expanding Indian market to U.S. business, while limiting the inflow of Indian skilled workers and students through visa barriers. 3. Unlike the strategies that preceded it, the 2025 Strategy retains global dominance as the declared organising goal of U.S. security policy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2025 U.S. National Security Strategy criticises past U.S. foreign policy for making the American public pay for the security of others in the period after the Cold War ended in 1991.
  2. Under the present approach, the India partnership is framed less around strategic convergence and more around opening an expanding Indian market to U.S. business, while limiting the inflow of Indian skilled workers and students through visa barriers.
  3. Unlike the strategies that preceded it, the 2025 Strategy retains global dominance as the declared organising goal of U.S. security policy.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Comparing the United States tariff position on Indian goods before and after the February 2026 understanding, consider the following statements: 1. The peak burden of 50% on several Indian exports included a punitive component of 25 percentage points linked to India's purchase of Russian crude oil. 2. The understanding moved every Indian export line then facing the 50% rate to a uniform lower rate of 18%. 3. The reciprocal tariff rate of 18% is applied to originating goods of India under Executive Order 14257 of April 2, 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The peak burden of 50% on several Indian exports included a punitive component of 25 percentage points linked to India's purchase of Russian crude oil.
  2. The understanding moved every Indian export line then facing the 50% rate to a uniform lower rate of 18%.
  3. The reciprocal tariff rate of 18% is applied to originating goods of India under Executive Order 14257 of April 2, 2025.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. The negotiations on the India-United States Bilateral Trade Agreement that produced the February 2026 interim understanding were conducted, on the two sides respectively, by which of the following?

  • A. The United States Department of Commerce and the Ministry of Commerce and Industry of India
  • B. The Office of the United States Trade Representative and the Ministry of Commerce and Industry of India
  • C. The Office of the United States Trade Representative and the Ministry of External Affairs of India
  • D. The United States Department of the Treasury and the Ministry of Finance of India

Q5. The two Section 301 investigations initiated by the United States Trade Representative in March 2026, on forced labour and on excess industrial capacity, covered how many economies in all, and the forced-labour findings issued in June 2026 proposed additional duties on how many economies?

  • A. 60 economies covered; additional duties proposed on 48
  • B. 54 economies covered; additional duties proposed on 48
  • C. 60 economies covered; additional duties proposed on 54
  • D. 48 economies covered; additional duties proposed on 12

Q6. With reference to the United States trade instruments currently applied to Indian goods, consider the following: 1. Section 232 — duties justified on national-security grounds, applied to steel, aluminium and automobile components, and levied over and above the normal MFN tariff. 2. Section 301 — duties flowing from investigations into the practices of trading partners, including forced labour and excess industrial capacity. 3. The 10% designated duty on Indian goods under the forced-labour findings — the band applied to economies that do have forced-labour import bans but are held to enforce them insufficiently or to have merely committed to do so. 4. Executive Order 14257 of April 2, 2025 — the instrument under which the additional 25% punitive duty on India for purchases of Russian crude was imposed. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Section 232 — duties justified on national-security grounds, applied to steel, aluminium and automobile components, and levied over and above the normal MFN tariff.
  2. Section 301 — duties flowing from investigations into the practices of trading partners, including forced labour and excess industrial capacity.
  3. The 10% designated duty on Indian goods under the forced-labour findings — the band applied to economies that do have forced-labour import bans but are held to enforce them insufficiently or to have merely committed to do so.
  4. Executive Order 14257 of April 2, 2025 — the instrument under which the additional 25% punitive duty on India for purchases of Russian crude was imposed.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q7. The additional 25% duty imposed on Indian goods in August 2025 over India's purchases of Russian crude oil came into effect on which date, and through which instrument?

  • A. August 7, 2025, through a Presidential Executive Order taking effect on the date of its signature
  • B. August 27, 2025, through a determination of the United States Trade Representative under Section 301
  • C. September 5, 2025, through a determination of the United States Department of Commerce under Section 232
  • D. August 27, 2025, through a Presidential Executive Order signed twenty-one days before that date

Q8. After the punitive duty over Russian crude took India's total tariff burden to 50% in 2025, India stood at the highest tariff rate applied by the United States to any country, sharing that position with which one of the following?

  • A. China
  • B. Brazil
  • C. Vietnam
  • D. Bangladesh

Q9. Consider the following initiatives said to have been launched or announced under the U.S.-India COMPACT for the 21st Century at the February 2025 summit: 1. TRUST — Transforming the Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology, covering defence, artificial intelligence and semiconductors 2. Mission 500 — the trade-expansion sub-initiative announced alongside the COMPACT launch 3. INDUS Innovation — an innovation bridge modelled on INDUS-X, fostering investment in space, energy and other emerging technologies 4. IMEC — the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, launched as the connectivity pillar of the COMPACT Which of the above is/are NOT correctly associated with the COMPACT framework?

  1. TRUST — Transforming the Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology, covering defence, artificial intelligence and semiconductors
  2. Mission 500 — the trade-expansion sub-initiative announced alongside the COMPACT launch
  3. INDUS Innovation — an innovation bridge modelled on INDUS-X, fostering investment in space, energy and other emerging technologies
  4. IMEC — the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, launched as the connectivity pillar of the COMPACT
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 4 only

Q10. Under 'Mission 500', announced at the February 2025 summit, bilateral India-United States trade is targeted to reach USD 500 billion by 2030, roughly doubling from what level of bilateral trade in 2024?

  • A. About USD 110 billion
  • B. About USD 210 billion
  • C. About USD 260 billion
  • D. About USD 310 billion

Q11. Comparing the civil nuclear foundation of the earlier convergence-based India-U.S. partnership with the arrangements sought under the 2025 COMPACT, consider the following statements: 1. The India-U.S. 123 Agreement concerning peaceful uses of nuclear energy was signed in October 2008, after the Nuclear Suppliers Group granted India a waiver from its restrictions. 2. Under the arrangements of that period India undertook to separate its civilian and military nuclear facilities in a phased manner, to place civilian facilities under IAEA safeguards, and to accede to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty. 3. The COMPACT framework of February 2025 sought to advance civil nuclear cooperation by welcoming India's move to amend its Atomic Energy Act and its Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The India-U.S. 123 Agreement concerning peaceful uses of nuclear energy was signed in October 2008, after the Nuclear Suppliers Group granted India a waiver from its restrictions.
  2. Under the arrangements of that period India undertook to separate its civilian and military nuclear facilities in a phased manner, to place civilian facilities under IAEA safeguards, and to accede to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty.
  3. The COMPACT framework of February 2025 sought to advance civil nuclear cooperation by welcoming India's move to amend its Atomic Energy Act and its Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q12. The Positive Indigenisation Lists, which restrict procurement of listed defence items to domestic manufacturers after fixed timelines, are notified by which of the following?

  • A. The Department of Defence Production and the Department of Military Affairs
  • B. The Defence Research and Development Organisation, working through its laboratories and testing establishments
  • C. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D. The Directorate General of Quality Assurance and the Defence Acquisition Council of the Ministry of Defence