UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Plea in SC seeks SIT probe against CEC, audit of poll body

Q1. Which one of the following is the widest and most accurate description of the elections over which Article 324(1) vests superintendence, direction and control in the Election Commission of India?

  • A. Elections to Parliament, to the Legislature of every State, and to the offices of President and Vice-President
  • B. All elections held in India, including those to panchayats and municipalities, to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State
  • C. Elections to Parliament, to the Legislature of every State, and to the offices of Governor and Vice-President
  • D. Elections to Parliament and to the State Legislative Assemblies only, together with the election to the office of President

Q2. Regional Commissioners to assist the Election Commission in the performance of its functions are appointed by which authority, and after what procedural step?

  • A. By the President, after consultation with the Election Commission
  • B. By the President, on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner
  • C. By the Election Commission, in consultation with the Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D. By the Governor of the State concerned, after consultation with the Election Commission

Q3. Consider the following as protections conferred by the proviso to Article 324(5) of the Constitution: 1. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. 3. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. 4. A Regional Commissioner may be removed from office by the President without any recommendation from the Chief Election Commissioner. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
  3. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
  4. A Regional Commissioner may be removed from office by the President without any recommendation from the Chief Election Commissioner.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q4. Consider the following statements about the procedure by which the Chief Election Commissioner may be removed from office: 1. Removal requires an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament has been presented to him. 2. The address must be supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. 3. The only grounds on which such removal may be sought are proved misbehaviour or incapacity. 4. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner may likewise be removed only by an address of both Houses of Parliament. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Removal requires an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament has been presented to him.
  2. The address must be supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  3. The only grounds on which such removal may be sought are proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
  4. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner may likewise be removed only by an address of both Houses of Parliament.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4

Q5. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the Search Committee that prepares the panel of names for the Selection Committee functions under the chairship of which functionary?

  • A. The Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India
  • B. The Union Minister of Law and Justice, who moves the appointment before the President
  • C. The Secretary, Legislative Department, Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D. The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, who is also a member of the Selection Committee

Q6. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, how many names does the Search Committee place in the panel it forwards for consideration?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Five
  • D. Six

Q7. Consider the following statements about judicial pronouncements bearing on the Election Commission of India: 1. In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), a Constitution Bench directed that, until Parliament made a law, appointments to the Commission be made by a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India. 2. In Association for Democratic Reforms v. Election Commission of India (May 2026), the Supreme Court struck down the Special Intensive Revision as lying beyond the statutory mandate of the Commission under the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 3. In September 2026, a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court delivered a split verdict on whether the challenge to the 2023 appointments law should go to a larger Bench, and directed that the matter be placed before the Chief Justice of India. 4. In T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Election Commissioners are at par with the Chief Election Commissioner. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), a Constitution Bench directed that, until Parliament made a law, appointments to the Commission be made by a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India.
  2. In Association for Democratic Reforms v. Election Commission of India (May 2026), the Supreme Court struck down the Special Intensive Revision as lying beyond the statutory mandate of the Commission under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
  3. In September 2026, a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court delivered a split verdict on whether the challenge to the 2023 appointments law should go to a larger Bench, and directed that the matter be placed before the Chief Justice of India.
  4. In T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Election Commissioners are at par with the Chief Election Commissioner.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3

Q8. In upholding the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in May 2026, the Supreme Court traced the Election Commission's power to conduct that exercise primarily to which source?

  • A. The Commission's statutory mandate under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, read with its obligation under Article 324
  • B. The residuary executive power of the Union under Article 73, read with the Representation of the People Act, 1951
  • C. The Commission's supervisory power under Article 243K, read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960
  • D. The plenary power of Parliament under Article 327 to make provision with respect to all elections

Q9. The petition filed in the Supreme Court in September 2026 against the Chief Election Commissioner contends that the alleged acts constitute a cognisable offence principally under which provision, read with the general penal law?

  • A. Section 32 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, read with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  • B. Section 31 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, read with the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
  • C. Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, read with the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
  • D. Section 136 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, read with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

Q10. In the Special Intensive Revision, objections filed against entries in the draft roll are examined — with a further field visit ordered where necessary — by which officer?

  • A. The Electoral Registration Officer
  • B. The Booth Level Officer of the polling area
  • C. The Chief Electoral Officer of the State or Union territory
  • D. The District Magistrate functioning as District Election Officer

Q11. Consider the following statements: 1. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 empowers the Election Commission to direct that electoral rolls be revised intensively, or summarily, or partly intensively and partly summarily. 2. Section 32 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 penalises an electoral registration officer, an assistant electoral registration officer or any other person required to perform official duty who, without reasonable cause, commits a breach of that duty in connection with electoral rolls. 3. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 is the statute that governs the conduct of elections, corrupt practices and disqualifications arising out of electoral offences. 4. No court may take cognizance of an offence under Section 32 except on a complaint made by order of, or under authority from, the Election Commission or the Chief Electoral Officer of the State. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 empowers the Election Commission to direct that electoral rolls be revised intensively, or summarily, or partly intensively and partly summarily.
  2. Section 32 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 penalises an electoral registration officer, an assistant electoral registration officer or any other person required to perform official duty who, without reasonable cause, commits a breach of that duty in connection with electoral rolls.
  3. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 is the statute that governs the conduct of elections, corrupt practices and disqualifications arising out of electoral offences.
  4. No court may take cognizance of an offence under Section 32 except on a complaint made by order of, or under authority from, the Election Commission or the Chief Electoral Officer of the State.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q12. Consider the following statements comparing the tenure protections of election authorities: 1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. A State Election Commissioner appointed under Article 243K can be removed from office only in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court. 3. Every member of the Election Commission of India enjoys exactly the same constitutional removal protection as the Chief Election Commissioner, and none of them can be removed otherwise than by an address of both Houses of Parliament. 4. The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner may be varied to his disadvantage at any time after his appointment, provided Parliament approves the variation. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. A State Election Commissioner appointed under Article 243K can be removed from office only in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.
  3. Every member of the Election Commission of India enjoys exactly the same constitutional removal protection as the Chief Election Commissioner, and none of them can be removed otherwise than by an address of both Houses of Parliament.
  4. The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner may be varied to his disadvantage at any time after his appointment, provided Parliament approves the variation.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 2 and 4