UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Declaration part of Form 6 changed since SIR in Bihar

Q1. With reference to the forms prescribed by the Election Commission of India for matters relating to the electoral roll, consider the following form–purpose pairings: Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Form 6 — application for inclusion of the name of a person not already enrolled, in the roll of the constituency of ordinary residence.
  2. Form 6A — application by an overseas elector, filed before the Electoral Registration Officer of the constituency in which the applicant's place of residence in India as entered in the passport falls.
  3. Form 7 — application by a person already enrolled for correction of particulars in an entry and for shifting of residence within the constituency.
  4. Form 6B — form for furnishing the Aadhaar number of a person already enrolled as an elector.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the Enumeration Form used during a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) with Form 6 read with the prescribed Declaration Form: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A person whose Enumeration Form does not reach the Electoral Registration Officer by the notified cut-off date can still seek inclusion by applying in Form 6 along with the prescribed Declaration Form during the claims and objections period.
  2. Unlike the Enumeration Form, Form 6 with the Declaration could be submitted during SIR only online through the ECINet app or website, and not to the Booth Level Officer.
  3. In Bihar's SIR, persons who had attained 18 years of age on 1 July 2025 as well as those attaining 18 years on or before 1 October 2025 were eligible to apply in Form 6 with the prescribed Declaration Form.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, when the Election Commission directs that the roll for a constituency be revised 'intensively' rather than summarily, what does such a revision involve?

  • A. The roll is prepared afresh, the rules that govern the first preparation of a roll applying to the revision as they apply to such first preparation
  • B. The existing roll is carried forward as it stands, and only the additions, deletions and corrections received during the revision period are incorporated in it
  • C. Only the last part of the roll of the constituency, containing service electors, is redrawn afresh by the Electoral Registration Officer concerned
  • D. The roll is redrawn with reference to a fresh qualifying date fixed by the State Government in consultation with the Chief Electoral Officer of the State

Q4. An applicant aggrieved by an order of the Electoral Registration Officer on inclusion or deletion of a name in the electoral roll has a remedy of appeal. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, before which authorities do the first and the second appeal respectively lie?

  • A. First appeal before the District Magistrate and second appeal before the Chief Electoral Officer of the State
  • B. First appeal before the Chief Electoral Officer of the State and second appeal before the Election Commission of India
  • C. First appeal before the District Magistrate and second appeal before the Election Commission of India
  • D. First appeal before the Assistant Electoral Registration Officer and second appeal before the District Magistrate

Q5. Regarding the declaration accompanying Form 6 in the first phase of the Special Intensive Revision in Bihar, which one of the following statements is correct?

  • A. It is dealt with by the Electoral Registration Officer, who cannot delete a name from the draft roll without notice and a speaking order
  • B. It is dealt with by the District Magistrate, whose finding on the applicant's citizenship is final and not open to any appeal
  • C. It is forwarded to the Ministry of Home Affairs, which alone decides every applicant's eligibility for enrolment in the roll
  • D. It is dealt with by the Booth Level Officer, whose verification report is binding on the Electoral Registration Officer in all cases

Q6. In the Special Intensive Revision in Bihar, electors whose names were not found in the 2003 electoral roll had to furnish proof from an indicative list of documents specified by the Election Commission. How many documents were there in that indicative list?

  • A. 7
  • B. 9
  • C. 11
  • D. 14

Q7. With reference to Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, consider the following: Which of the above is/are correctly identified as a Phase II jurisdiction along with the detail given?

  1. Kerala, where the draft electoral roll under the revision was scheduled to be published on 23 December 2025.
  2. Chhattisgarh, one of the States for which the Election Commission deployed Special Roll Observers for the revision.
  3. Odisha, where the enumeration phase of this Phase began on 30 May 2026.
  4. Lakshadweep, one of the three Union Territories covered, with its draft electoral roll published on 16 December 2025.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding how the declaration accompanying Form 6 in later phases of the Special Intensive Revision differs from the declaration first used in Bihar: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. In Bihar, the declaration graded the supporting documents required according to the period in which the applicant was born, whereas in the later phase the applicant has to state whether the applicant or the applicant's parents figure in the last Special Intensive Revision.
  2. The later declaration requires the applicant to give the Assembly constituency, the polling booth and the serial number at which the applicant or the parents appear in the last Special Intensive Revision.
  3. The later phase extended to a wider set of jurisdictions than Bihar alone, covering 9 States and 3 Union Territories spread over 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, citizenship by birth was initially available to a person merely by reason of birth in India, and was progressively narrowed by reference to the status of the parents. Which one of the following is the earliest of these statutory cut-off dates, from which the parents' status first became relevant?

  • A. 26 January 1950
  • B. 1 July 1987
  • C. 3 December 2004
  • D. 7 January 2004

Q10. With reference to the Supreme Court's judgment of 27 May 2026 on the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, consider the following: Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The Court held that the Special Intensive Revision falls within the statutory mandate of the Election Commission under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
  2. The Court read the exercise as being in consonance with the Election Commission's constitutional obligation under Article 324 to ensure free and fair elections.
  3. The judgment was delivered in Association for Democratic Reforms & Ors. vs. Election Commission of India & Ors., W.P. (C) 640 of 2025.
  4. The Court held that the conditions of eligibility for registration as an elector, and the disqualification of non-citizens, are matters left wholly to the Election Commission's discretion and are not laid down by statute.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q11. With reference to the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in Bihar, consider the following: Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The draft electoral roll was published on 1 August 2025, and the period for filing claims, objections and documents ran from 1 August to 1 September 2025.
  2. The 2003 electoral roll of Bihar, covering about 4.96 crore electors, was uploaded on the Commission's website, so that nearly 60 per cent of the electorate did not have to submit any document.
  3. The final electoral roll was published on 30 September 2025, the revision having been carried out with reference to 1 July 2025 as the qualifying date.
  4. Every name not traceable in the 2003 electoral roll was necessarily dropped from the draft roll, such deletion being automatic and requiring no order.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q12. With reference to the appointment machinery and field functionaries of the Election Commission of India, consider the following: Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The Selection Committee that recommends appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners — the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
  2. The body that shortlists five names for consideration of that Selection Committee — a Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
  3. The authority that passes orders of inclusion in, or deletion from, the electoral roll of a constituency — the Booth Level Officer attached to the polling station.
  4. A member of the Selection Committee for appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner under the law enacted in 2023 — the Chief Justice of India.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4