UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Should voting be a fundamental right?

Q1. Which one of the following is the principal constitutional provision under which elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State are held on the basis of adult suffrage?

  • A. Article 324, which vests superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls and elections in the Election Commission
  • B. Article 325, which provides for one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency without exclusion on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex
  • C. Article 326, which was amended in 1988 to lower the qualifying age of electors from 21 years to 18 years
  • D. Article 327, which empowers Parliament to make provision for elections, including preparation of electoral rolls and delimitation of constituencies

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing Article 326 of the Constitution of India as originally enacted and as it stands after the Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988: 1. The original text fixed the minimum age of an elector at 21 years, while the amended text fixes it at 18 years. 2. The amendment lowered the voting age for elections to the House of the People only, leaving the qualifying age for State Legislative Assembly elections at 21 years. 3. Both before and after the amendment, Article 326 permits a person to be disqualified from registration under a law made by the appropriate Legislature on grounds such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime or corrupt or illegal practice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The original text fixed the minimum age of an elector at 21 years, while the amended text fixes it at 18 years.
  2. The amendment lowered the voting age for elections to the House of the People only, leaving the qualifying age for State Legislative Assembly elections at 21 years.
  3. Both before and after the amendment, Article 326 permits a person to be disqualified from registration under a law made by the appropriate Legislature on grounds such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime or corrupt or illegal practice.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Which of the following Supreme Court decisions is/are correctly identified with the proposition laid down in it? 1. PUCL v. Union of India (2013) — a 'None of the Above' option must be provided on ballot papers and EVMs. 2. Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006) — an MLA who votes against the party's direction in a Rajya Sabha election attracts disqualification under the Tenth Schedule. 3. Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal (1982) — the right to elect is neither a fundamental right nor a common law right, but a pure and simple statutory right. 4. Rajbala v. State of Haryana (2015) — the NOTA option cannot be permitted in elections to the Rajya Sabha. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. PUCL v. Union of India (2013) — a 'None of the Above' option must be provided on ballot papers and EVMs.
  2. Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006) — an MLA who votes against the party's direction in a Rajya Sabha election attracts disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
  3. Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal (1982) — the right to elect is neither a fundamental right nor a common law right, but a pure and simple statutory right.
  4. Rajbala v. State of Haryana (2015) — the NOTA option cannot be permitted in elections to the Rajya Sabha.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q4. Consider these elections: a general election to the Lok Sabha; a by-election to a State Legislative Assembly; a biennial election to the Rajya Sabha; an election to a State Legislative Council by members of the Legislative Assembly. Following the Supreme Court's rulings on NOTA, in how many of these elections can the NOTA option be offered to the voter?

  • A. Only one
  • B. Only two
  • C. Only three
  • D. All four

Q5. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, an 'overseas elector' is best described as:

  • A. an Overseas Citizen of India cardholder, aged at least 18 on the qualifying date, enrolled in the constituency of last residence in India
  • B. a citizen of India posted abroad in Government service and enrolled as a service voter in the constituency of his native place
  • C. a citizen of India who has not acquired another country's citizenship, is absent from India, and is enrolled in the constituency of his place of residence in India
  • D. a citizen of India residing abroad who is enrolled in a separate overseas constituency created for non-resident electors of each State

Q6. Which one of the following is the parent statute that lays down who is disqualified from being registered in an electoral roll, for instance a person disqualified from voting under laws on corrupt practices and electoral offences?

  • A. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, which also bars persons confined in prison from voting
  • B. The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • C. The Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951
  • D. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, which also deals with allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures

Q7. Consider the following statements comparing the interim appointment mechanism laid down in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) with the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023: 1. Under both arrangements, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the single largest opposition party) is a member of the panel. 2. Unlike the Anoop Baranwal arrangement, the 2023 Act extends to all Election Commissioners the same protection from removal as is available to the Chief Election Commissioner. 3. The 2023 Act makes a Chief Election Commissioner who completes a term necessarily eligible for reappointment for one further term. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under both arrangements, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the single largest opposition party) is a member of the panel.
  2. Unlike the Anoop Baranwal arrangement, the 2023 Act extends to all Election Commissioners the same protection from removal as is available to the Chief Election Commissioner.
  3. The 2023 Act makes a Chief Election Commissioner who completes a term necessarily eligible for reappointment for one further term.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, which was the subject of a split verdict in the Supreme Court in 2026, consider the following: 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chief Justice of India 3. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister 4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Which of the above is/are correctly identified as members of the Selection Committee that recommends appointment of the CEC and Election Commissioners?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chief Justice of India
  3. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister
  4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q9. In the process of revising electoral rolls, 'Form 7' refers to:

  • A. an application by a first-time elector, or one who has shifted from another constituency, for inclusion of a name
  • B. an objection to a proposed inclusion, or a request to remove a name, which may be filed by the elector or by another elector
  • C. an application for correction of entries, shifting of residence within the constituency, or a replacement EPIC card
  • D. the pre-filled enumeration form given to each elector by the Booth Level Officer during a Special Intensive Revision

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding safeguards against wrongful deletion of names from electoral rolls: 1. An elector aggrieved by an order of the Electoral Registration Officer may appeal to the District Magistrate within 15 days, and a second appeal lies to the Chief Electoral Officer within 30 days of the District Magistrate's order. 2. During the Special Intensive Revision, deletions are carried out only after verification by Booth Level Officers through house-to-house enumeration, and may include electors found untraceable despite repeated visits. 3. Documents on which the Electoral Registration Officer's satisfaction is based are uploaded on ECINet and made accessible to every elector of the constituency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. An elector aggrieved by an order of the Electoral Registration Officer may appeal to the District Magistrate within 15 days, and a second appeal lies to the Chief Electoral Officer within 30 days of the District Magistrate's order.
  2. During the Special Intensive Revision, deletions are carried out only after verification by Booth Level Officers through house-to-house enumeration, and may include electors found untraceable despite repeated visits.
  3. Documents on which the Electoral Registration Officer's satisfaction is based are uploaded on ECINet and made accessible to every elector of the constituency.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. In 2026, two Election Commissioners reportedly recorded repeated objections to roll-related decisions taken without the full Commission's approval. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, how is a difference of opinion among members of the Election Commission to be resolved?

  • A. The Chief Election Commissioner's opinion prevails, since the CEC acts as Chairman of the Commission under Article 324
  • B. The matter is referred to the President, who decides it on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers
  • C. The matter is decided according to the opinion of the majority of the members of the Commission
  • D. The matter is referred to the Selection Committee chaired by the Prime Minister for a binding decision

Q12. In India, compulsory voting has been provided for by legislation in respect of which elections, and under which law?

  • A. Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections, under the Compulsory Voting Bill, 2004 moved by Bachi Singh Rawat
  • B. Municipal elections alone, under the Gujarat Local Authorities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2009
  • C. Panchayat elections alone, under the Compulsory Voting Bill, 2009 moved by J.P. Agarwal as a private member
  • D. Municipal and panchayat elections, under the Gujarat Local Authorities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2009