UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — ‘₹370 biryani’ row : SC notice to States on comedian’s plea
Q1. The power of Parliament to empower, by law, any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the writ powers exercisable by the Supreme Court for enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III is traceable to which one of the following provisions?
- A. Article 32(2) of the Constitution of India
- B. Article 139 of the Constitution of India
- C. Article 32(3) of the Constitution of India
- D. Article 226(1) of the Constitution of India
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction available for enforcement of fundamental rights in India:
1. The writs named in the text of Article 32(2) are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.
2. The writ power under Article 32(2) is available for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
3. The right guaranteed by Article 32 may be suspended by the Supreme Court in its discretion whenever the security of the State so requires.
4. A High Court may issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for no other purpose.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The writs named in the text of Article 32(2) are habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.
- The writ power under Article 32(2) is available for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
- The right guaranteed by Article 32 may be suspended by the Supreme Court in its discretion whenever the security of the State so requires.
- A High Court may issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for no other purpose.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 1, 2 and 4
- D. 3 and 4
Q3. In the relief sought by the petitioner before the Supreme Court in the '₹370 biryani' matter, the expression 'clubbing of FIRs' denotes which one of the following?
- A. Registration of an FIR at a police station that lacks territorial jurisdiction, for onward transmission to the station concerned
- B. Consolidation of separate FIRs registered in different States over one incident so that they proceed as a single set of proceedings
- C. Trial together, in one proceeding, of several offences committed by one accused in a series of acts forming the same transaction
- D. Merger of an ongoing police investigation with a pending magisterial inquiry into the same occurrence
Q4. Consider the following statements comparing the 2026 plea of the stand-up comedian in the '₹370 biryani' matter with the 2025 proceedings concerning the YouTube show 'India's Got Latent':
1. In both matters the petitioner approached the Supreme Court seeking consolidation of multiple FIRs arising out of remarks made on a comedy show.
2. In the 2025 matter, the Bench that dealt with the consolidation plea was headed by the then Chief Justice of India.
3. In the 2025 matter, the Court also ruled that no further FIRs should be registered against the petitioner on the basis of the content of the same show.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- In both matters the petitioner approached the Supreme Court seeking consolidation of multiple FIRs arising out of remarks made on a comedy show.
- In the 2025 matter, the Bench that dealt with the consolidation plea was headed by the then Chief Justice of India.
- In the 2025 matter, the Court also ruled that no further FIRs should be registered against the petitioner on the basis of the content of the same show.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 does away with the offence of sedition as it stood in the Indian Penal Code, 1860. Which one of the following describes the conduct penalised by the provision introduced in its place?
- A. Acts intended to threaten the unity, integrity and security of the country or to intimidate the general public
- B. Kidnapping, extortion, contract killing or cybercrime committed on behalf of an organised criminal syndicate
- C. Obtaining sexual intercourse by employing deceitful means, made punishable as a distinct offence
- D. Exciting or attempting to excite secession, armed rebellion or subversive activities against India
Q6. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, murder or grievous hurt caused on grounds such as caste, language, sex or personal belief attracts the special 'mob lynching' punishment only when it is committed by a group of at least how many persons?
- A. Three persons
- B. Five persons
- C. Seven persons
- D. Ten persons
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the office of the Chief Justice of India and the constitution of Benches of the Supreme Court:
1. The Chief Justice of India is invariably the judge who is senior-most in age among the sitting judges of the Supreme Court.
2. Justice Surya Kant made and subscribed the oath of office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India before the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 24 November 2025.
3. Every petition invoking the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court must necessarily be heard by a Bench of not less than five judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Chief Justice of India is invariably the judge who is senior-most in age among the sitting judges of the Supreme Court.
- Justice Surya Kant made and subscribed the oath of office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India before the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 24 November 2025.
- Every petition invoking the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court must necessarily be heard by a Bench of not less than five judges.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q8. As per the Memorandum of Procedure governing higher judiciary appointments, the initiation of a proposal for appointment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India vests with which one of the following?
- A. The Chief Justice of India
- B. The Department of Justice in the Ministry of Law and Justice
- C. The Chief Justice of the High Court from which the elevation is proposed
- D. The Legislative Department in the Ministry of Law and Justice
Q9. The National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (cybercrime.gov.in) and the toll-free helpline '1930' function as part of which one of the following?
- A. The National Crime Records Bureau, which alone is competent to register cybercrime FIRs in all States
- B. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- C. The National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre under the National Technical Research Organisation
- D. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre, an attached office of the Ministry of Home Affairs
Q10. Consider the following pairs relating to the registration and reporting of criminal complaints in India:
1. Zero FIR — an FIR may be registered at any police station irrespective of its territorial jurisdiction
2. e-FIR — an FIR may be filed online through the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems
3. National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal — a portal launched and run by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
4. Helpline '1930' — a toll-free number operationalised for assistance in lodging online cyber complaints
Which of the above pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?
- Zero FIR — an FIR may be registered at any police station irrespective of its territorial jurisdiction
- e-FIR — an FIR may be filed online through the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems
- National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal — a portal launched and run by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- Helpline '1930' — a toll-free number operationalised for assistance in lodging online cyber complaints
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 only
- C. 2 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q11. A State seeks to restrain a public performance on the ground that it offends 'decency or morality'. Which one of the following correctly states the constitutional basis available for such a restriction?
- A. Article 19(2), which lists decency or morality along with contempt of court and defamation among the permitted grounds
- B. Article 19(2), which lists decency or morality but does not extend to contempt of court or defamation as grounds
- C. Article 19(6), which permits reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression on grounds of decency or morality
- D. Article 21, under which restrictions on speech offensive to public decency may be imposed by the State
Q12. With reference to the Supreme Court proceedings in the '₹370 biryani' matter, consider the following:
1. The petitioner before the Supreme Court is a stand-up comedian who hosted the show at which the remark was made.
2. Notice on the plea was issued to the Union government and to the States of Maharashtra and Haryana.
3. The FIR registered by the Maharashtra Cyber Police invoked provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
4. The plea was heard by a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Justice Joymalya Bagchi.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The petitioner before the Supreme Court is a stand-up comedian who hosted the show at which the remark was made.
- Notice on the plea was issued to the Union government and to the States of Maharashtra and Haryana.
- The FIR registered by the Maharashtra Cyber Police invoked provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
- The plea was heard by a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Justice Joymalya Bagchi.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1 and 4 only