UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Independence of the Bar is crucial for preservation of rule of law: Supreme Court

Q1. In Ajay Vijh v. Indian Banks Association (2026 INSC 670), the appeal against the Allahabad High Court order was decided by a Bench of the Supreme Court comprising how many judges?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Five

Q2. With reference to the Supreme Court's decision in Ajay Vijh v. Indian Banks Association (2026), consider the following statements: 1. The judgment carries the neutral citation 2026 INSC 670. 2. The Bench was headed by Justice P.S. Narasimha. 3. The Supreme Court upheld the Allahabad High Court order dismissing the advocate's writ petition. 4. The Court directed the immediate removal of the advocate's name from the Indian Banks' Association Caution List. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

  1. The judgment carries the neutral citation 2026 INSC 670.
  2. The Bench was headed by Justice P.S. Narasimha.
  3. The Supreme Court upheld the Allahabad High Court order dismissing the advocate's writ petition.
  4. The Court directed the immediate removal of the advocate's name from the Indian Banks' Association Caution List.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q3. With reference to the Supreme Court's reasoning on the independence of the Bar in the 2026 caution-list judgment, consider the following statements: 1. The independence of the Bar was held to be as vital as the independence of the judiciary. 2. Matters of professional misconduct of advocates fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the Bar Councils under the Advocates Act. 3. Advocates must remain insulated from executive and external pressures. 4. Banks may lawfully declare an advocate professionally negligent by including the advocate in a Caution List. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The independence of the Bar was held to be as vital as the independence of the judiciary.
  2. Matters of professional misconduct of advocates fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the Bar Councils under the Advocates Act.
  3. Advocates must remain insulated from executive and external pressures.
  4. Banks may lawfully declare an advocate professionally negligent by including the advocate in a Caution List.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q4. In the context of the 2026 Supreme Court judgment, the principle of 'self-regulation of the legal profession' is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. Regulation of advocates' professional conduct and discipline by their own statutory peer bodies (the Bar Councils) rather than by external authorities
  • B. Regulation of advocates by the Reserve Bank of India and the Indian Banks' Association through caution lists
  • C. Regulation of the legal profession directly by the Union Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D. Regulation of advocates' fees and conduct by the registrars of the respective High Courts

Q5. Which one of the following is the apex statutory body vested with general supervision and control over the legal profession and legal education in India?

  • A. Bar Council of India
  • B. The concerned State Bar Council
  • C. Indian Banks' Association
  • D. Supreme Court Bar Association

Q6. Under Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961, advocates are divided into how many classes?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

Q7. Under the Advocates Act, 1961, a disciplinary committee of a Bar Council is constituted with exactly how many members?

  • A. Three
  • B. Five
  • C. Seven
  • D. Nine

Q8. Who presides as Chairman of a disciplinary committee of a Bar Council under the Advocates Act, 1961?

  • A. The senior-most advocate among the members of the committee
  • B. The Chairman of the Bar Council of India
  • C. The Attorney-General for India
  • D. A sitting judge of the concerned High Court

Q9. With reference to the Caution List concerning third-party service providers of banks, consider the following statements: 1. The Caution List is maintained by the Indian Banks' Association as per Reserve Bank of India guidelines. 2. Its purpose is to alert banks about fraudulent borrowers. 3. RBI requires banks to report deficient third-party services, such as legal search reports and property valuers' reports, that collude with fraudsters. 4. The Caution List is prepared and maintained directly by the Reserve Bank of India itself. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

  1. The Caution List is maintained by the Indian Banks' Association as per Reserve Bank of India guidelines.
  2. Its purpose is to alert banks about fraudulent borrowers.
  3. RBI requires banks to report deficient third-party services, such as legal search reports and property valuers' reports, that collude with fraudsters.
  4. The Caution List is prepared and maintained directly by the Reserve Bank of India itself.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1 and 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4 only

Q10. As clarified by the Supreme Court in 2026, consider the following as regards the scope of the RBI-mandated Caution List: 1. It targets unscrupulous or fraudulent borrowers. 2. Deficient third-party service providers colluding with fraudsters can be reported to it. 3. It may be used to declare an advocate professionally negligent or incompetent. 4. Deficient reports of property valuers fall within its reporting scope. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It targets unscrupulous or fraudulent borrowers.
  2. Deficient third-party service providers colluding with fraudsters can be reported to it.
  3. It may be used to declare an advocate professionally negligent or incompetent.
  4. Deficient reports of property valuers fall within its reporting scope.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 3 and 4

Q11. The 'basic structure doctrine', as laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. Parliament's amending power cannot be used to abrogate essential features such as the rule of law and the independence of the judiciary
  • B. Parliament has no power whatsoever to amend any provision of the Constitution
  • C. The judiciary may strike down any ordinary law that violates any Directive Principle of State Policy
  • D. Every constitutional amendment must be ratified by all the State Legislatures before taking effect

Q12. With reference to the observations and directions of the Supreme Court in its 2026 judgment on the independence of the Bar, consider the following: 1. The Court reframed case pendency as a shared responsibility of the Bar and the Bench. 2. The Bar Council of India was directed to conduct a performance audit of the disciplinary mechanisms of State Bar Councils. 3. The Court proposed a National Legal Academy modelled on the National Judicial Academy. 4. The Court directed the Union Government to set up dedicated fast-track courts to clear pendency. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Court reframed case pendency as a shared responsibility of the Bar and the Bench.
  2. The Bar Council of India was directed to conduct a performance audit of the disciplinary mechanisms of State Bar Councils.
  3. The Court proposed a National Legal Academy modelled on the National Judicial Academy.
  4. The Court directed the Union Government to set up dedicated fast-track courts to clear pendency.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 3