UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Christian forum opposes proposed FCRA amendment
Q1. Under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, a certificate of registration granted to an association, unless earlier cancelled, remains valid for a period of how many years?
- A. Three years, renewable on application made before the date of expiry
- B. Five years, renewable on application made before the date of expiry
- C. Seven years, renewable on application made before the date of expiry
- D. Ten years, renewable on application made before the date of expiry
Q2. Which one of the following is the principal section of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 that bars any person from accepting foreign contribution without either a certificate of registration or prior permission of the Central Government?
- A. Section 3, which lists the categories of persons debarred from receiving foreign contribution
- B. Section 11, which mandates registration or prior permission before acceptance of foreign contribution
- C. Section 12, which lays down the procedure and conditions for grant of a certificate by the Centre
- D. Section 17, which requires receipt of foreign contribution in a single designated bank account
Q3. The grant, renewal, suspension and cancellation of registrations under the successive Foreign Contribution (Regulation) enactments of 1976, 2010 and 2020 are operationalised by which one of the following?
- A. The Foreigners Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs, which administers the Act for the Central Government
- B. The Department of Revenue of the Ministry of Finance, which regulates cross-border receipts by resident entities
- C. The Foreign Exchange Department of the Reserve Bank of India, which clears inward remittances to associations
- D. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs, which regulates trusts, societies and section 8 companies receiving grants
Q4. The vesting framework proposed by the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 covers assets created wholly or partly out of foreign contribution received since the commencement of which one of the following enactments?
- A. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973, which first regulated foreign currency dealings by residents
- B. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 1976, the original enactment regulating foreign funding of associations
- C. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, the re-enactment that introduced the present compliance regime
- D. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020, which introduced the tightened banking and Aadhaar conditions
Q5. With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following:
Which of the above is/are correctly identified as provisions of the Bill?
- On cancellation, surrender or cessation of a certificate, the foreign contribution and the assets created out of it vest in a Designated Authority to be prescribed by the government.
- Where such vested assets are sold, the sale proceeds are to be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.
- A State Government must obtain the approval of the Central Government before initiating an investigation into an offence under the Act.
- The maximum term of imprisonment for certain violations is raised from one year to five years, and 'key functionaries' are made liable for offences by the organisation.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the funds and accounts of the Union under the Constitution:
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- The Consolidated Fund of India is constituted under Article 266(1) and comprises all revenues received and loans raised by the Government of India.
- The Contingency Fund of India, established by the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950, is placed at the disposal of the Prime Minister to meet unforeseen expenditure.
- No money can be appropriated out of the Consolidated Fund of India except in accordance with law and for the purposes and in the manner provided in the Constitution.
- The Public Account of India is constituted under Article 267 of the Constitution.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Q7. The corpus of the Contingency Fund of India, to be paid into it from the Consolidated Fund of India, was last enhanced through the Finance Bill to how many crore rupees?
- A. Rupees five hundred crore, the level at which the corpus stood before the enhancement
- B. Rupees five thousand crore, an interim level proposed for the Fund's expansion
- C. Rupees thirty thousand crore, the level at which the corpus presently stands
- D. Rupees fifty thousand crore, the ceiling recommended for unforeseen expenditure
Q8. In 2026, the government of which one of the following northeastern States resolved jointly with the State's apex church bodies — the Kohhran Hruaitute Committee and the Council of Churches — to submit a memorandum to the Centre seeking changes to the FCRA Amendment Bill?
- A. Nagaland, whose Baptist church council is the largest denominational body in the region
- B. Meghalaya, where the Khasi and Garo hill districts host extensive mission-run institutions
- C. Mizoram, whose Chief Minister convened the church leadership on the proposed Bill
- D. Manipur, where hill-district church organisations have sought relief for foreign-funded schools
Q9. In August 2026, the Assam Christian Forum appealed to the Centre and to Members of Parliament from how many northeastern States to have the contested provisions of the FCRA Amendment Bill dropped?
- A. Five States
- B. Seven States
- C. Eight States
- D. Eleven States
Q10. Which one of the following correctly describes the furthest stage in the parliamentary process reached by the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 as of the 2026 Monsoon Session?
- A. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha but its consideration was deferred by the government amid protests
- B. It was passed by the Lok Sabha and its consideration was pending in the Rajya Sabha at the session's end
- C. It was referred by the Speaker to the Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs
- D. It was referred to a Select Committee of the Rajya Sabha for report before the following session
Q11. The right of every religious denomination to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, and to own, acquire and administer property, flows principally from which one of the following provisions of the Constitution?
- A. Article 25, which guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate
- B. Article 26, which is subject to public order, morality and health and to administration in accordance with law
- C. Article 27, which bars compelling any person to pay taxes for promotion of any particular faith
- D. Article 29, which protects the right of any section of citizens to conserve its distinct culture