UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Rahul Gandhi moves SC against HC order for a ‘roving inquiry’

Q1. The power of a High Court of superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction is derived from which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

  • A. Article 226, which also enables the issue of writs to any authority within those territories
  • B. Article 228, which enables withdrawal of a case pending in a subordinate court
  • C. Article 227, which is exercised over courts and tribunals within those territories
  • D. Article 235, which relates to the district judiciary within those territories

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the writ powers of the Supreme Court and the High Courts: 1. Proceedings initiated under Article 226 are in exercise of the original jurisdiction of a High Court, whereas proceedings initiated under Article 227 are supervisory in nature. 2. Article 226 permits a High Court to issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas the Supreme Court under Article 32 may additionally issue them 'for any other purpose'. 3. A writ under Article 226 may be issued against a tribunal, an inferior court or an administrative authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Proceedings initiated under Article 226 are in exercise of the original jurisdiction of a High Court, whereas proceedings initiated under Article 227 are supervisory in nature.
  2. Article 226 permits a High Court to issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas the Supreme Court under Article 32 may additionally issue them 'for any other purpose'.
  3. A writ under Article 226 may be issued against a tribunal, an inferior court or an administrative authority.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Article 136 extends the Supreme Court's power to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order passed by any court or tribunal in the territory of India. How many categories of courts or tribunals are expressly placed outside the reach of that power by the Article itself?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

Q4. Which one of the following most precisely describes the nature of the relief that a petitioner asks the Supreme Court to grant when invoking Article 136 of the Constitution?

  • A. A certificate that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution, allowing an appeal to be filed as of right
  • B. Withdrawal to itself of proceedings pending before one or more High Courts because they raise substantial questions of general importance
  • C. Discretionary permission to appeal from a judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order of any court or tribunal in the territory of India
  • D. An opinion on a question of law or fact of public importance that has arisen or is likely to arise for consideration

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Supreme Court to transfer proceedings: 1. Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the Supreme Court to direct that a suit, appeal or other proceeding be transferred from a High Court or other Civil Court in one State to a High Court or other Civil Court in any other State. 2. Under Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court to which a proceeding is transferred must in every case retry it from the beginning. 3. An application under Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is to be made by a motion supported by an affidavit. 4. Section 406 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers the Supreme Court to transfer a criminal case or appeal from one High Court to another High Court. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the Supreme Court to direct that a suit, appeal or other proceeding be transferred from a High Court or other Civil Court in one State to a High Court or other Civil Court in any other State.
  2. Under Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the court to which a proceeding is transferred must in every case retry it from the beginning.
  3. An application under Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is to be made by a motion supported by an affidavit.
  4. Section 406 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers the Supreme Court to transfer a criminal case or appeal from one High Court to another High Court.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q6. Consider the following statements distinguishing the constitutional and statutory routes for moving proceedings between courts: 1. Under Article 139A, the Supreme Court may withdraw to itself cases pending before one or more High Courts on its own motion or on an application by the Attorney-General of India or by a party, where they involve substantial questions of general importance. 2. Article 139A also enables the Supreme Court to transfer a case, appeal or other proceeding pending before one High Court to another High Court if it deems it expedient for the ends of justice. 3. Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 confers the power to transfer a suit from a civil court in one State to a civil court in another State on the High Court concerned, and not on the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under Article 139A, the Supreme Court may withdraw to itself cases pending before one or more High Courts on its own motion or on an application by the Attorney-General of India or by a party, where they involve substantial questions of general importance.
  2. Article 139A also enables the Supreme Court to transfer a case, appeal or other proceeding pending before one High Court to another High Court if it deems it expedient for the ends of justice.
  3. Section 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 confers the power to transfer a suit from a civil court in one State to a civil court in another State on the High Court concerned, and not on the Supreme Court.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. In discussions of the Central Bureau of Investigation's operation in the States, the expression 'general consent' most precisely denotes which one of the following?

  • A. A standing approval by a State Government under which the agency may exercise powers and jurisdiction in that State for offences already notified by the Centre, without a fresh sanction in each case
  • B. An approval to be obtained from the State Government separately for each case before the agency registers a first information report anywhere within that State
  • C. An approval by the State Government that must precede any notification by the Central Government adding fresh offences to the schedule investigable by the agency
  • D. A concurrence of the State's Director General of Police enabling agency officers to exercise the powers of an officer in charge of a police station in that State

Q8. Consider the following pairings of a statute with the authority that enforces or administers it: 1. Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 — Directorate of Enforcement 2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 — Directorate of Enforcement 3. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — authorities appointed under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 4. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 — Ministry of Home Affairs Which of the above is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 — Directorate of Enforcement
  2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 — Directorate of Enforcement
  3. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — authorities appointed under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002
  4. Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 — Ministry of Home Affairs
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3
  • D. 4 only

Q9. Apart from judicial oversight, statutory superintendence over the Central Bureau of Investigation in respect of the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is exercised by which one of the following?

  • A. The Department of Personnel and Training in the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • B. The Lokpal constituted under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
  • C. The Central Vigilance Commission constituted under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
  • D. The Directorate of Prosecution headed by an officer of the rank of Joint Secretary

Q10. The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha is a member of several statutory selection committees. Consider the following statements about the composition of such committees: 1. The committee recommending the appointment of the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation consists of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice. 2. The committee recommending the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner consists of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. 3. The Selection Committee for the Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, a judicial member and an eminent jurist. 4. The Selection Committee for the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners under the 2023 Act consists of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The committee recommending the appointment of the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation consists of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice.
  2. The committee recommending the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner consists of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Selection Committee for the Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, a judicial member and an eminent jurist.
  4. The Selection Committee for the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners under the 2023 Act consists of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q11. In the petitions filed by the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha before the Supreme Court in August 2026 over an alleged 'disproportionate assets' complaint, the expression 'impugned orders' denotes which one of the following?

  • A. An order of a special MP/MLA court in Lucknow declining to direct registration of a first information report on the complaint
  • B. Directions issued by the Central Vigilance Commission requiring the investigating agency to verify the complaint and report progress
  • C. A final judgment of the Delhi High Court disposing of a writ petition arising out of the same complaint
  • D. Interim orders of the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court passed in May and July 2026

Q12. Consider the following identifications relating to the Supreme Court of India as of August 2026: 1. Surya Kant — the 53rd Chief Justice of India, who assumed office on 24 November 2025 2. B. R. Gavai — the Chief Justice of India whose term ended on 23 November 2025 3. Subhash Vidyarthi — a Judge of the Supreme Court on the Bench listed to hear the Leader of the Opposition's petitions in the 'disproportionate assets' matter 4. V. Mohana — a Judge of the Supreme Court on the Bench listed to hear those petitions Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Surya Kant — the 53rd Chief Justice of India, who assumed office on 24 November 2025
  2. B. R. Gavai — the Chief Justice of India whose term ended on 23 November 2025
  3. Subhash Vidyarthi — a Judge of the Supreme Court on the Bench listed to hear the Leader of the Opposition's petitions in the 'disproportionate assets' matter
  4. V. Mohana — a Judge of the Supreme Court on the Bench listed to hear those petitions
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3