UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — SC to hear MP’s plea against surveillance of NEET protesters
Q1. In the context of policing databases in India, 'UNIFY' refers to which one of the following?
- A. A fingerprint repository allowing tenprint and chance-print searches by police forces across all States and Union Territories
- B. A national database of convicted sexual offenders maintained for tracking and monitoring by law-enforcement agencies
- C. A web-based automated photograph-matching application of the NCRB for searching images of missing persons and criminals
- D. An online system for time-bound monitoring of the investigation of sexual offences by State police units
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the legal position of facial recognition and biometric data handling in India:
1. Even before the digital personal data protection framework came into force, a body corporate could be held liable under Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 for negligence in protecting sensitive personal data, including biometric data.
2. The Automated Facial Recognition System developed by the National Crime Records Bureau is designed to be accessible only to law-enforcement agencies.
3. The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 lay down a dedicated procedure specifically authorising police deployment of facial recognition technology at public assemblies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Even before the digital personal data protection framework came into force, a body corporate could be held liable under Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 for negligence in protecting sensitive personal data, including biometric data.
- The Automated Facial Recognition System developed by the National Crime Records Bureau is designed to be accessible only to law-enforcement agencies.
- The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 lay down a dedicated procedure specifically authorising police deployment of facial recognition technology at public assemblies.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Which one of the following correctly identifies the constitutional provision under which, and the year in which, the Supreme Court held the right to privacy to be a fundamental right?
- A. Article 19(1)(a) on speech and expression, in 2017, with informational privacy held to be an essential facet of the right
- B. Article 21 on life and personal liberty, in 2017, with informational privacy held to be an essential facet of the right
- C. Article 21 on life and personal liberty, in 2023, when the statute on digital personal data protection was enacted
- D. Article 300A on the right to property, in 2017, with informational privacy held to be an essential facet of the right
Q4. The Supreme Court judgment of August 2017 that declared privacy a fundamental right was delivered by a Bench of how many judges?
- A. Five
- B. Nine
- C. Seven
- D. Eleven
Q5. With reference to the digital personal data protection framework in India, consider the following statements:
1. Processing of personal data in the interest of the prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of an offence is exempted from specified obligations under the Act.
2. Appeals against the orders of the Data Protection Board of India lie to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal.
3. An entity registered as a Consent Manager may be an individual or a company incorporated outside India.
4. The Rules notified in 2025 require all obligations to be complied with from the date of notification itself, without any transition period.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- Processing of personal data in the interest of the prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of an offence is exempted from specified obligations under the Act.
- Appeals against the orders of the Data Protection Board of India lie to the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal.
- An entity registered as a Consent Manager may be an individual or a company incorporated outside India.
- The Rules notified in 2025 require all obligations to be complied with from the date of notification itself, without any transition period.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 3 and 4
Q6. The Rules operationalising the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 were framed and notified by which one of the following Union Ministries?
- A. The Ministry of Home Affairs, which administers the National Crime Records Bureau
- B. The Ministry of Communications, which administers telecommunication services in the country
- C. The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, which administers digital media regulation
- D. The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, which administers the information technology sector
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the change in the judge strength of the Supreme Court of India approved in 2026:
1. The number of judges other than the Chief Justice of India is raised from 33 to 37.
2. The change is effected by amending the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
3. The expenditure on the salaries and facilities of the additional judges is to be met from the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The number of judges other than the Chief Justice of India is raised from 33 to 37.
- The change is effected by amending the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
- The expenditure on the salaries and facilities of the additional judges is to be met from the Contingency Fund of India.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 2 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q8. Which one of the following correctly states the authority that appointed Justice Surya Kant as the Chief Justice of India, and the date from which the appointment took effect?
- A. The Supreme Court Collegium of the five senior-most judges; with effect from 10 February 2025
- B. The President of India, in exercise of powers conferred by the Constitution; with effect from 24 November 2025
- C. The Union Council of Ministers, on the recommendation of the Law Ministry; with effect from 24 November 2025
- D. The President of India, in exercise of powers conferred by the Constitution; with effect from 24 November 2026
Q9. Which one of the following correctly pairs the agency to which the investigation into the alleged NEET-UG 2026 paper leak was entrusted with the Union Ministry under whose administrative aegis the examination is conducted?
- A. National Investigation Agency; Ministry of Education
- B. Central Vigilance Commission; Ministry of Home Affairs
- C. Central Bureau of Investigation; Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D. Central Bureau of Investigation; Ministry of Education
Q10. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, the expression 'public examination' extends to which one of the following sets of examinations?
- A. Only entrance tests for professional and higher-education courses conducted by the National Testing Agency, such as NEET, JEE and CUET
- B. Examinations of the Union Public Service Commission, Staff Selection Commission, Railways and banking recruitment bodies, and computer-based tests of the National Testing Agency
- C. Only recruitment examinations conducted by Union-level bodies such as the Union Public Service Commission and the Staff Selection Commission, excluding all entrance tests
- D. Examinations conducted by the Union as well as by all State public service commissions and State secondary school examination boards
Q11. The freedom guaranteed to citizens by Article 19(1)(b) of the Constitution of India is best described as the right —
- A. to form associations or unions, subject to reasonable restrictions in the interests of public order and morality
- B. to move freely throughout the territory of India, subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the State
- C. to assemble peaceably and without arms, subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the State
- D. to freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the State
Q12. The Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System integrates how many pillars of the criminal justice system in India?
- A. Five
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Seven