UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Students in ‘severe pain’ need apology, not PM’s ‘forgiveness’: Rahul Gandhi

Q1. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, offences are required to be investigated by a police officer not below which one of the following ranks?

  • A. Inspector of Police, or an officer of equivalent rank in the investigating agency concerned
  • B. Deputy Superintendent of Police, or Assistant Commissioner of Police in the commissionerate system
  • C. Superintendent of Police, or Deputy Commissioner of Police in the commissionerate system
  • D. Inspector General of Police, or Joint Commissioner of Police in the commissionerate system

Q2. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, what is the longest period for which a service provider found involved in an offence may be debarred from conducting any public examination?

  • A. Four years, the period retained without change from the parent Act of 2024
  • B. Five years, aligned with the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for individuals
  • C. Eight years, the enhanced maximum introduced by the amending Bill
  • D. Ten years, aligned with the maximum term prescribed for organised crime

Q3. Which one of the following correctly describes the agency arrangement for conducting the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (Undergraduate)?

  • A. It is held by the National Testing Agency, an autonomous testing organisation functioning under the Ministry of Education, as the designated authority
  • B. It is held by the National Medical Commission itself through its Under-Graduate Medical Education Board, which is barred from designating any outside authority
  • C. It is held by the Central Board of Secondary Education under the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education
  • D. It is held by the Directorate General of Health Services under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which also allots seats

Q4. The requirement of a uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission to undergraduate medical education in all medical institutions is laid down in which one of the following?

  • A. Section 10 of the National Medical Commission Act, 2019
  • B. Section 14 of the National Medical Commission Act, 2019
  • C. Section 15 of the National Medical Commission Act, 2019
  • D. Section 33 of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956

Q5. Which one of the following statements about the office of the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha is correct?

  • A. He or she leads the opposition party having the greatest numerical strength in the House and is recognised as such by the Speaker of the House of the People
  • B. He or she leads the single largest opposition party, recognition following automatically and invariably upon the declaration of the general election results
  • C. The office is created directly by the Constitution, and the House of the People must at all times necessarily have a Leader of the Opposition in position
  • D. He or she must necessarily lead a party holding at least one-tenth of the total strength of the House, a condition expressly laid down in the Act of 1977

Q6. Which one of the following statements regarding the institutional role of the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha is correct?

  • A. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President only upon the recommendation of a committee that is invariably headed by the Leader of the Opposition
  • B. The Leader of the Opposition is a member of the Selection Committee for appointment of the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal
  • C. The Leader of the Opposition is entitled as of right to membership of every Departmentally Related Standing Committee of Parliament
  • D. The Leader of the Opposition chairs the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in all circumstances, by an unbroken parliamentary convention

Q7. The Central Bureau of Investigation's jurisdiction in the alleged NEET-UG 2026 paper leak case was invoked through a written complaint received from which one of the following?

  • A. The Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India
  • B. The Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education, Government of India
  • C. The Under-Graduate Medical Education Board of the National Medical Commission
  • D. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India

Q8. Apart from the general criminal law and the anti-corruption law, which was the principal special statute invoked in the CBI's first information report in the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak case?

  • A. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
  • B. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
  • C. The Information Technology Act, 2000
  • D. The National Medical Commission Act, 2019

Q9. Under the Constitution, on how many distinct grounds may the State impose reasonable restrictions by law on the right of citizens to assemble peaceably and without arms?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Six
  • D. Eight

Q10. Consider the following statements comparing the freedom of assembly with other freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 of the Constitution: 1. The grounds on which the State may restrict the right to assemble peaceably and without arms are fewer in number than the grounds on which it may restrict the freedom of speech and expression. 2. 'The sovereignty and integrity of India' was available as a ground for restricting the freedom of assembly from the commencement of the Constitution, whereas it became a ground for restricting the freedom of speech and expression only through the Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Act, 1963. 3. The right to assemble peaceably and without arms, like the right to form associations or unions, is guaranteed only to citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The grounds on which the State may restrict the right to assemble peaceably and without arms are fewer in number than the grounds on which it may restrict the freedom of speech and expression.
  2. 'The sovereignty and integrity of India' was available as a ground for restricting the freedom of assembly from the commencement of the Constitution, whereas it became a ground for restricting the freedom of speech and expression only through the Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Act, 1963.
  3. The right to assemble peaceably and without arms, like the right to form associations or unions, is guaranteed only to citizens.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. What is the minimum eligibility qualification prescribed for appointment as an Assistant Professor and equivalent positions in universities and colleges?

  • A. A master's degree in the relevant discipline with at least fifty-five per cent marks, without any further qualifying test
  • B. Qualifying the National Eligibility Test or an accredited State Level Eligibility Test, with Ph.D. holders exempted
  • C. An M.Phil. degree awarded in accordance with the Regulations of the University Grants Commission in force
  • D. A Ph.D. degree in the relevant discipline in every case, the National Eligibility Test being merely a fellowship test

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding examination-integrity episodes involving the National Testing Agency: 1. The UGC-NET June 2024 examination and the NEET (UG) 2024 examination were both conducted in pen-and-paper (OMR) mode. 2. The UGC-NET June 2024 examination was cancelled after the University Grants Commission received inputs from the National Cyber Crime Threat Analytics Unit of the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre, which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 3. Unlike the UGC-NET episode, the NEET (UG) 2026 paper-leak matter was referred to the Central Bureau of Investigation in 2025, that is, before the examination concerned was held. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The UGC-NET June 2024 examination and the NEET (UG) 2024 examination were both conducted in pen-and-paper (OMR) mode.
  2. The UGC-NET June 2024 examination was cancelled after the University Grants Commission received inputs from the National Cyber Crime Threat Analytics Unit of the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre, which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  3. Unlike the UGC-NET episode, the NEET (UG) 2026 paper-leak matter was referred to the Central Bureau of Investigation in 2025, that is, before the examination concerned was held.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3