UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Gherao of judicial staff a challenge to SC: CJI
Q1. The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, rolled out in its second phase across 12 States/UTs in 2025-26, is conducted by which one of the following authorities?
- A. The Election Commission of India
- B. The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India
- C. The Ministry of Home Affairs
- D. The National Informatics Centre under MeitY
Q2. The second phase of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls (2025-26) was extended to how many States and Union Territories in all?
Q3. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Supreme Court of India declared a 'court of record' having the power to punish for contempt of itself?
- A. Article 215
- B. Article 142
- C. Article 129
- D. Article 32
Q4. Under Section 20 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, contempt proceedings cannot be initiated after the expiry of what period from the date on which the contempt is alleged to have been committed?
- A. Six months
- B. One year
- C. Three years
- D. Ninety days
Q5. With reference to the changes made to the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008 by its 2019 amendment, consider the following statements:
1. The amendment empowered the NIA to investigate scheduled offences committed outside India that affect Indian citizens or Indian interests.
2. Cyber-terrorism and human trafficking were among the offences newly added to the schedule of the Act by the amendment.
3. The amendment transferred the power to designate Special Courts from the Central Government to the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The amendment empowered the NIA to investigate scheduled offences committed outside India that affect Indian citizens or Indian interests.
- Cyber-terrorism and human trafficking were among the offences newly added to the schedule of the Act by the amendment.
- The amendment transferred the power to designate Special Courts from the Central Government to the State Governments.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q6. In the context of the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, what does the term 'scheduled offence' precisely mean?
- A. An offence specified in the Schedule appended to the Act, which the NIA is empowered to investigate
- B. An offence falling within the subjects listed in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
- C. An offence committed against members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
- D. An offence that can only be tried by a Judicial Magistrate on a scheduled cause list
Q7. Which single Article of the Constitution is regarded as the principal enabling provision that allows the Supreme Court to pass 'any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice' in a matter before it?
- A. Article 32
- B. Article 142
- C. Article 136
- D. Article 129
Q8. After taking suo motu cognisance of the gherao of judicial officers in Malda (2026), the Supreme Court ultimately allowed the investigation to be taken over by which agency?
- A. The Central Bureau of Investigation
- B. The National Investigation Agency
- C. The Enforcement Directorate
- D. The State Criminal Investigation Department
Q9. Under Section 13B of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the Electoral Registration Officer for a constituency is designated or nominated by which authority?
- A. The Election Commission, in consultation with the State Government
- B. The State Government, in consultation with the Governor
- C. The District Election Officer of the concerned district
- D. The Chief Electoral Officer of the State
Q10. Among the States that went to Assembly polls in the 2026 election cycle, West Bengal had the largest Legislative Assembly. How many members is the West Bengal Legislative Assembly composed of?
Q11. With reference to the treatment of 'wrongful confinement' (the offence underlying a gherao) in Indian criminal law, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, wrongful confinement is dealt with under Section 127, which corresponds to Section 340 of the erstwhile Indian Penal Code.
2. Wrongful confinement is treated as a graver offence than wrongful restraint, as it prevents a person from moving beyond certain circumscribing limits.
3. To make out wrongful confinement, proof of actual physical restraint of the victim is essential in every case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, wrongful confinement is dealt with under Section 127, which corresponds to Section 340 of the erstwhile Indian Penal Code.
- Wrongful confinement is treated as a graver offence than wrongful restraint, as it prevents a person from moving beyond certain circumscribing limits.
- To make out wrongful confinement, proof of actual physical restraint of the victim is essential in every case.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q12. The convention followed in the appointment of the Chief Justice of India — most recently in the elevation of Justice Surya Kant as the 53rd CJI — is best described as which one of the following?
- A. Appointment of the senior-most sitting judge of the Supreme Court by established convention
- B. Selection of the CJI on merit by the Supreme Court Collegium from among all sitting judges
- C. Election of the CJI by a secret ballot of the sitting judges of the Supreme Court
- D. Nomination of the CJI directly by the Union Council of Ministers