UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Bar Council has no power to punish law students: SC

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding disciplinary proceedings under the Advocates Act, 1961: 1. Where a State Bar Council has reason to believe that an advocate on its roll is guilty of professional or other misconduct, it refers the case for disposal to its own disciplinary committee. 2. Where the person concerned is an advocate whose name is not entered on any State roll, the case is referred to the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India. 3. A complaint referred to the disciplinary committee of a State Bar Council must be disposed of within three years from the date of receipt of the complaint. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Where a State Bar Council has reason to believe that an advocate on its roll is guilty of professional or other misconduct, it refers the case for disposal to its own disciplinary committee.
  2. Where the person concerned is an advocate whose name is not entered on any State roll, the case is referred to the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India.
  3. A complaint referred to the disciplinary committee of a State Bar Council must be disposed of within three years from the date of receipt of the complaint.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. In the scheme of the Advocates Act, 1961, the expression 'State roll' refers to which one of the following?

  • A. The roll of advocates prepared and maintained by a State Bar Council, containing the names and addresses of advocates enrolled by it
  • B. The register of law colleges and universities within a State whose degrees have been recognised by the Bar Council of India for enrolment
  • C. The list of advocates designated as senior advocates by the High Court of the State concerned, maintained by its Registrar General
  • D. The panel of advocates empanelled by a State Government to appear on its behalf before courts and tribunals in that State

Q3. In its September 2026 ruling arising out of the NALSAR University of Law controversy, the Supreme Court held that disciplinary action against a law student is competently taken only by which one of the following?

  • A. The parent institution, or the authority prescribed under the regulations or bye-laws of that institution
  • B. The State Bar Council within whose territorial jurisdiction the student's institution is situated
  • C. The Legal Education Committee of the Bar Council of India, after an inspection of the institution concerned
  • D. The University Grants Commission, under its regulations for maintenance of standards in higher educational institutions

Q4. According to the Supreme Court's September 2026 ruling, the earliest point at which the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Bar Council of India over an individual can commence is:

  • A. the registration of the law graduate as an advocate under the Advocates Act, 1961
  • B. the admission of the student to a law degree course at a Bar Council-recognised institution, for the entire duration of the course
  • C. the completion of the law degree, when the graduate becomes eligible in all respects to apply to a State Bar Council
  • D. the graduate's first appearance before any court, tribunal or authority in a professional capacity

Q5. Under the Advocates Act, 1961, the office of Chairman of the Bar Council of India is filled in which one of the following ways?

  • A. By election by the Council itself, which similarly elects a Vice-Chairman from among its members
  • B. By the Attorney-General of India, who holds the chairmanship ex officio by virtue of his membership of the Council
  • C. By nomination by the Chief Justice of India from among the members elected to the Council by the State Bar Councils
  • D. By rotation among the members elected by the State Bar Councils, in order of their standing at the Bar

Q6. Consider the following pairings of an office with the body of which its holder is an ex officio member under the Advocates Act, 1961: 1. Attorney-General of India — Bar Council of India 2. Solicitor-General of India — Bar Council of India 3. Advocate-General of a State — Bar Council of that State 4. Additional Solicitor-General of India — Bar Council of India Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Attorney-General of India — Bar Council of India
  2. Solicitor-General of India — Bar Council of India
  3. Advocate-General of a State — Bar Council of that State
  4. Additional Solicitor-General of India — Bar Council of India
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q7. Which one of the following correctly states the division of regulatory authority over law degrees in India?

  • A. Recognition of the LL.B. degree for the purpose of enrolment rests with the Bar Council of India, while postgraduate and research programmes in law are governed by the University Grants Commission
  • B. Recognition of all law degrees, including the LL.M. and the Ph.D. in law, rests with the Bar Council of India under the Advocates Act, 1961, the UGC having only a funding role
  • C. Recognition of the LL.B. degree rests with the University Grants Commission, while the Bar Council of India recognises only the LL.M. programmes offered by national law universities
  • D. Recognition of all law degrees rests with the University Grants Commission, the Bar Council of India being confined to conducting the qualifying examination for entry to the Bar

Q8. Consider the following statements about two reports of the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice on legal education: 1. The 2024 report recommended the creation of a National Council for Legal Education and Research under the proposed Higher Education Commission of India, with the Bar Council of India's powers confined to regulating basic eligibility for practising at the Bar. 2. The 2016 report recommended that the power to inspect and recognise law colleges be transferred from the Bar Council of India to the University Grants Commission. 3. The 2016 report recommended that the University Grants Commission frame rules under the UGC Act, 1956 to provide financial stability to legal education institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2024 report recommended the creation of a National Council for Legal Education and Research under the proposed Higher Education Commission of India, with the Bar Council of India's powers confined to regulating basic eligibility for practising at the Bar.
  2. The 2016 report recommended that the power to inspect and recognise law colleges be transferred from the Bar Council of India to the University Grants Commission.
  3. The 2016 report recommended that the University Grants Commission frame rules under the UGC Act, 1956 to provide financial stability to legal education institutions.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Consider the following pairings of a national law university with the legislation establishing it: 1. NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad — National Academy of Legal Studies and Research University Act, 1998 2. National Law University, Jodhpur — National Law University, Jodhpur Act, 1999 3. National Law School of India University, Bengaluru — National Law School of India Act, 1986 4. National Law University and Judicial Academy, Assam — an Act of Parliament of 2009 Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad — National Academy of Legal Studies and Research University Act, 1998
  2. National Law University, Jodhpur — National Law University, Jodhpur Act, 1999
  3. National Law School of India University, Bengaluru — National Law School of India Act, 1986
  4. National Law University and Judicial Academy, Assam — an Act of Parliament of 2009
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q10. Under the statute establishing NALSAR University of Law, the functions of the Chancellor — including presiding over convocations and causing inspections of the University to be made — are discharged by:

  • A. the Chief Justice of the High Court of the State in which the University is situated
  • B. the Chief Justice of India, in view of the University's status as a national law university
  • C. the Governor of the State, who is the Visitor of universities established by State legislation
  • D. the Union Minister of Law and Justice, who heads the ministry concerned with legal education

Q11. With reference to the right to protest as recognised and delimited by the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements: 1. The right to peaceful protest has been traced to Articles 19(1)(a), 19(1)(b) and 19(1)(c) of the Constitution. 2. Article 19(1)(b) guarantees to citizens the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. 3. The Court has held that in cases of prolonged dissent, a public place may be occupied indefinitely so long as the protest remains peaceful. 4. The Court has held that the right to protest, being a facet of free expression, is absolute and immune from reasonable restrictions. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The right to peaceful protest has been traced to Articles 19(1)(a), 19(1)(b) and 19(1)(c) of the Constitution.
  2. Article 19(1)(b) guarantees to citizens the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
  3. The Court has held that in cases of prolonged dissent, a public place may be occupied indefinitely so long as the protest remains peaceful.
  4. The Court has held that the right to protest, being a facet of free expression, is absolute and immune from reasonable restrictions.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 and 4
  • C. 2 and 3
  • D. 4 only

Q12. Pending completion of the statutory process for reconstituting the Bar Council of India, the Supreme Court in September 2026 directed that every policy decision of the Council be taken with the active association of:

  • A. the Attorney-General for India and the Solicitor-General of India
  • B. the Union Minister of Law and Justice and the Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs
  • C. the chairpersons of all the State Bar Councils and the Supreme Court Bar Association
  • D. a retired judge of the Supreme Court nominated for the purpose by the Chief Justice of India