UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — ‘Irreverent Gen Z a sure sign of our democratic progress’
Q1. Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India enumerates the interests in which the State may impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression. How many such grounds are expressly enumerated in that clause?
- A. Six enumerated grounds, all of them introduced by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
- B. Seven enumerated grounds, of which 'public order' is the only one added by amendment
- C. Eight enumerated grounds, including contempt of court, defamation and incitement to an offence
- D. Nine enumerated grounds, including 'the economic interests of the State' as a separate head
Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the restriction clauses attached to different freedoms in Article 19 of the Constitution of India:
1. The right to assemble peaceably and without arms may be restricted in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India and of public order.
2. 'Decency or morality' is available as a ground for restricting the freedom of speech and expression, but is not among the grounds specified for restricting the right of assembly.
3. The right to form associations or unions may be restricted only on the same grounds as those specified for the freedom of speech and expression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The right to assemble peaceably and without arms may be restricted in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India and of public order.
- 'Decency or morality' is available as a ground for restricting the freedom of speech and expression, but is not among the grounds specified for restricting the right of assembly.
- The right to form associations or unions may be restricted only on the same grounds as those specified for the freedom of speech and expression.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act as amended in 2019, where the investigation is conducted by an officer of the National Investigation Agency, the seizure or attachment of property believed to be connected with terrorism requires the prior approval of which one of the following?
- A. The Director General of Police of the State in which the property is situated
- B. The Director General of the National Investigation Agency
- C. The Union Home Secretary in the Ministry of Home Affairs
- D. The Special Court designated to try offences under the Act
Q4. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 added the International Convention for Suppression of Acts of Nuclear Terrorism (2005) to the Schedule of the Act listing treaties whose contravention amounts to a terrorist act. After this addition, how many treaties does that Schedule contain?
- A. Eight
- B. Nine
- C. Ten
- D. Twelve
Q5. Constitutional morality is invoked when constitutional guarantees are preferred over prevailing popular morality. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court decisions of September 2018 in which this reasoning was applied:
1. In Joseph Shine, the Court upheld the validity of Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code on adultery, holding that prevailing social morality justified its retention.
2. In Navtej Singh Johar, the Court held Section 377 IPC unconstitutional to the extent indicated, finding that it violated the right to dignity, privacy and sexual autonomy under Article 21.
3. Indian Young Lawyers Association (the Sabarimala matter) was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench by a 4:1 majority, invoking Articles 14, 15, 17, 21 and 25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- In Joseph Shine, the Court upheld the validity of Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code on adultery, holding that prevailing social morality justified its retention.
- In Navtej Singh Johar, the Court held Section 377 IPC unconstitutional to the extent indicated, finding that it violated the right to dignity, privacy and sexual autonomy under Article 21.
- Indian Young Lawyers Association (the Sabarimala matter) was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench by a 4:1 majority, invoking Articles 14, 15, 17, 21 and 25.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q6. Where a legislative provision reflecting prevailing social morality is found to be inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights, which provision of the Constitution of India expressly renders such a law void to the extent of the inconsistency?
- A. Article 13, which deals with laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights
- B. Article 32, which provides the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of these rights
- C. Article 141, which makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India
- D. Article 368, which lays down the procedure for amendment of the Constitution and its limits
Q7. The Gen Z-led uprising in Nepal was triggered when the government imposed a blanket block on social media platforms for alleged regulatory non-compliance. How many platforms were covered by that block?
Q8. Consider the following statements about the wave of Generation Z protests across countries:
1. In Madagascar, President Andry Rajoelina was forced out of power and out of the country after a military mutiny that followed weeks of youth-led demonstrations.
2. In Peru, the immediate trigger for the protests was a government ban on ride-hailing applications, after which the agitation widened into demands on insecurity and corruption.
3. In Morocco, the leaderless collective that led the agitation took its name, Gen Z 212, from the country's international dialling code.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- In Madagascar, President Andry Rajoelina was forced out of power and out of the country after a military mutiny that followed weeks of youth-led demonstrations.
- In Peru, the immediate trigger for the protests was a government ban on ride-hailing applications, after which the agitation widened into demands on insecurity and corruption.
- In Morocco, the leaderless collective that led the agitation took its name, Gen Z 212, from the country's international dialling code.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q9. With reference to the process of appointment of judges to the High Courts in India, consider the following:
1. The proposal for an appointment is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned, in consultation with the two seniormost judges of that High Court.
2. The proposal is forwarded to the Chief Minister of the State, with copies to the Governor of the State, the Union Minister of Law and Justice and the Chief Justice of India.
3. Under the Memorandum of Procedure, the process is to be initiated at least six months before the vacancy is due to occur.
4. For High Court appointments, consultation with the Chief Justice of India means consultation with a collegium of the Chief Justice of India and the four seniormost judges of the Supreme Court.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The proposal for an appointment is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned, in consultation with the two seniormost judges of that High Court.
- The proposal is forwarded to the Chief Minister of the State, with copies to the Governor of the State, the Union Minister of Law and Justice and the Chief Justice of India.
- Under the Memorandum of Procedure, the process is to be initiated at least six months before the vacancy is due to occur.
- For High Court appointments, consultation with the Chief Justice of India means consultation with a collegium of the Chief Justice of India and the four seniormost judges of the Supreme Court.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Q10. The Union Cabinet approved the introduction of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026, amending the Act of 1956. To what figure does the Bill raise the number of judges of the Supreme Court, excluding the Chief Justice of India?
Q11. With reference to the strategic pillars identified by NITI Aayog for realising the vision of Viksit Bharat@2047, consider the following:
1. Economic competitiveness and sustainable growth
2. Demographic dividend and universal social security
3. Digital public infrastructure as a standalone pillar
4. Robust legal foundations
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Economic competitiveness and sustainable growth
- Demographic dividend and universal social security
- Digital public infrastructure as a standalone pillar
- Robust legal foundations
- A. 1 and 4
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Q12. Under Article 21 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, restrictions on the right of peaceful assembly must be imposed in conformity with law and be necessary in a democratic society. With reference to the interests expressly named in that Article, consider the following:
1. National security or public safety
2. Protection of public health or morals
3. Protection of the rights and freedoms of others
4. Contempt of court and defamation
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- National security or public safety
- Protection of public health or morals
- Protection of the rights and freedoms of others
- Contempt of court and defamation
- A. 1 and 4 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4