UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — IIT-M told to disclose grant-in-aid fund use

Q1. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, the ground of 'disproportionate diversion of the resources of the public authority' appearing in Section 7(9) permits a Public Information Officer to do which one of the following?

  • A. Reject the request for information in its entirety, recording reasons in writing
  • B. Provide the information in a form other than the one in which it has been sought
  • C. Extend the statutory period for supplying the information from 30 days to 45 days
  • D. Transfer the request to another public authority which holds the information

Q2. With reference to Section 7(9) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following propositions: 1. Information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought. 2. The form of access may be altered where supplying it in the form sought would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority. 3. The form of access may be altered where supplying it in the form sought would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record in question. 4. The provision empowers the Public Information Officer to decline a request altogether on the ground that it is voluminous. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought.
  2. The form of access may be altered where supplying it in the form sought would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority.
  3. The form of access may be altered where supplying it in the form sought would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record in question.
  4. The provision empowers the Public Information Officer to decline a request altogether on the ground that it is voluminous.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 3 and 4

Q3. With reference to the Central Information Commission, consider the following: 1. It consists of the Chief Information Commissioner and such number of Information Commissioners as may be deemed necessary, not exceeding ten. 2. Following the oath administered in December 2025, the Commission functions with its full sanctioned complement of ten Information Commissioners. 3. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the Central Government to prescribe by rules the term of office and salaries of the Information Commissioners. 4. The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. It consists of the Chief Information Commissioner and such number of Information Commissioners as may be deemed necessary, not exceeding ten.
  2. Following the oath administered in December 2025, the Commission functions with its full sanctioned complement of ten Information Commissioners.
  3. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the Central Government to prescribe by rules the term of office and salaries of the Information Commissioners.
  4. The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q4. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, what is the maximum number of Information Commissioners, apart from the Chief Information Commissioner, that the Central Information Commission may have?

  • A. Five
  • B. Eight
  • C. Ten
  • D. Twelve

Q5. An applicant aggrieved by the refusal of a Central Public Information Officer to supply information must, in the first instance, prefer an appeal to which one of the following?

  • A. The Central Information Commission
  • B. An officer senior in rank to the Central Public Information Officer within the same public authority
  • C. The administrative Ministry which controls the concerned public authority
  • D. The High Court within whose jurisdiction the public authority is situated

Q6. Which one of the following correctly states the position under the Right to Information Act, 2005 regarding the time limit for disposal of appeals?

  • A. Both the first appeal and the second appeal must be disposed of within 30 days, extendable to 45 days
  • B. A first appeal must be disposed of within 30 days, extendable to a total of 45 days for reasons recorded in writing, while the Act prescribes no time limit for disposal of a second appeal by the Commission
  • C. The Act prescribes no time limit for the first appeal, but a second appeal must be decided by the Commission within 90 days
  • D. Both the first appeal and the second appeal must be decided within 90 days of filing

Q7. The Council of the Indian Institutes of Technology, the apex coordinating body for all IITs, is chaired by which one of the following?

  • A. The Union Minister of Education
  • B. The Chairman of the University Grants Commission
  • C. The Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India
  • D. The Director of the senior-most Indian Institute of Technology, by rotation

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the performance of IIT Madras in the NIRF India Rankings, 2025: 1. It was ranked first in the 'Engineering' category for the tenth consecutive year, and first in the 'Overall' category for the seventh consecutive year. 2. It secured the first rank in the 'Sustainable Development Goals' category, which was introduced for the first time in this edition. 3. It stood first in every category in which it was ranked, including 'Research Institutions', thereby improving on all its previous-year positions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It was ranked first in the 'Engineering' category for the tenth consecutive year, and first in the 'Overall' category for the seventh consecutive year.
  2. It secured the first rank in the 'Sustainable Development Goals' category, which was introduced for the first time in this edition.
  3. It stood first in every category in which it was ranked, including 'Research Institutions', thereby improving on all its previous-year positions.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to the Central Information Commission's order directing IIT-Madras to disclose grant-in-aid fund utilisation, consider the following statements: 1. The applicant's original request spanned three financial years but was subsequently narrowed, and the disclosure finally directed related to the financial year 2023-24. 2. The Central Public Information Officer of the institute had declined the original request on the ground that it was voluminous and would disproportionately divert the institute's resources. 3. The Commission accepted the plea of the Central Public Information Officer, holding that Section 7(9) is a valid ground for refusing the information altogether. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The applicant's original request spanned three financial years but was subsequently narrowed, and the disclosure finally directed related to the financial year 2023-24.
  2. The Central Public Information Officer of the institute had declined the original request on the ground that it was voluminous and would disproportionately divert the institute's resources.
  3. The Commission accepted the plea of the Central Public Information Officer, holding that Section 7(9) is a valid ground for refusing the information altogether.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Which one of the following correctly describes Section 8(2) of the Right to Information Act, 2005?

  • A. It bars the disclosure of any information exempted under Section 8(1) until the expiry of twenty years from the date of the event
  • B. It provides that a public authority may allow access to information if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests
  • C. It requires a Public Information Officer who rejects a request to communicate the reasons for rejection and the particulars of the appellate authority
  • D. It exempts from disclosure information received in confidence from a foreign government

Q11. With reference to the definition of 'public authority' under Section 2(h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following: 1. A body established or constituted by or under the Constitution is a public authority. 2. A body established by any other law made by Parliament or by a State Legislature is a public authority. 3. A non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate Government is included within the definition. 4. A body owned or controlled by the appropriate Government falls outside the definition unless it is wholly financed out of government funds. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. A body established or constituted by or under the Constitution is a public authority.
  2. A body established by any other law made by Parliament or by a State Legislature is a public authority.
  3. A non-Government organisation substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate Government is included within the definition.
  4. A body owned or controlled by the appropriate Government falls outside the definition unless it is wholly financed out of government funds.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4