UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Centre makes registration for e-sports mandatory

Q1. With reference to the composition of the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, consider the following ministries as being represented on the Authority: 1. Ministry of Home Affairs 2. Ministry of Commerce and Industry 3. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 4. Ministry of Law and Justice Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  3. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  4. Ministry of Law and Justice
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q2. The Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI), created under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, is chaired ex officio by which one of the following?

  • A. Additional Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B. Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • C. Secretary, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  • D. Cabinet Secretary

Q3. With reference to the distinction between the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 and the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. The Act was passed by Parliament in August 2025, whereas the Rules were notified by MeitY in April 2026. 2. The prohibition on all online money games flows from the parent Act, while the Rules operationalise registration and the regulator. 3. Both the Act and the Rules came into force on the same date, namely 1 May 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Act was passed by Parliament in August 2025, whereas the Rules were notified by MeitY in April 2026.
  2. The prohibition on all online money games flows from the parent Act, while the Rules operationalise registration and the regulator.
  3. Both the Act and the Rules came into force on the same date, namely 1 May 2026.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, consider the following: 1. Offering an online money game — imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs 1 crore. 2. Advertising an online money game — imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to Rs 50 lakh. 3. Three categories of online games are recognised: online money game, e-sport and online social game. 4. An e-sport is defined as a game involving betting or staking on outcomes. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Offering an online money game — imprisonment up to 3 years and fine up to Rs 1 crore.
  2. Advertising an online money game — imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to Rs 50 lakh.
  3. Three categories of online games are recognised: online money game, e-sport and online social game.
  4. An e-sport is defined as a game involving betting or staking on outcomes.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1, 3 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q5. With reference to registration requirements under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. Registration is mandatory for every online game offered as an e-sport. 2. Registration for online social games is required in all cases, exactly as for e-sports. 3. For online social games, registration is triggered only where the Central Government notifies a category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Registration is mandatory for every online game offered as an e-sport.
  2. Registration for online social games is required in all cases, exactly as for e-sports.
  3. For online social games, registration is triggered only where the Central Government notifies a category.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, the digital Certificate of Registration issued by the OGAI is valid for a period of up to how many years?

  • A. 5 years
  • B. 7 years
  • C. 10 years
  • D. 15 years

Q7. In the statutory definition of an 'e-sport' under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, an e-sport is recognised under which one of the following?

  • A. National Sports Governance Act, 2025
  • B. National Sports Development Code, 2011
  • C. Sports Broadcasting Signals Act, 2007
  • D. Public Gambling Act, 1867

Q8. The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 defines how many distinct categories of online games?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q9. The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026 were notified on 22 April 2026 and came into force on 1 May 2026. The interval between notification and enforcement was approximately how many days?

  • A. 9 days
  • B. 30 days
  • C. 45 days
  • D. 90 days

Q10. The Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) includes Joint Secretary-level members drawn from certain ministries. Consider the following: 1. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 2. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports 3. Ministry of Education 4. Ministry of Law and Justice Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as a ministry represented on the OGAI?

  1. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  2. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  3. Ministry of Education
  4. Ministry of Law and Justice
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 3 and 4

Q11. Under the responsible gaming safeguards announced with the 2026 online gaming framework, self-exclusion allows a user to set binding limits on how many of the following parameters — time and money?

  • A. One only (time)
  • B. One only (money)
  • C. Two (both time and money)
  • D. Three

Q12. In the constitutional framework governing gaming, the subject 'betting and gambling' is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. A State subject under Entry 34 of List II of the Seventh Schedule
  • B. A Union subject under List I of the Seventh Schedule
  • C. A Concurrent subject under List III of the Seventh Schedule
  • D. A residuary matter reserved to Parliament under Article 248