UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — SC had warned against leaving EC’s powers in the hands of one person

Q1. For removing the Chief Election Commissioner from office under the constitutional procedure, what minimum voting support must the removal motion secure in each House of Parliament?

  • A. A simple majority of the members present and voting only
  • B. Two-thirds of members present and voting, plus a majority of total membership
  • C. A majority of the total membership of the House only
  • D. Two-thirds of the members present and voting only

Q2. With reference to the Election Commission of India under Article 324 of the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may fix. 2. The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners is made subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament. 3. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 4. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office by the President on the recommendation of the Election Commissioners. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may fix.
  2. The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners is made subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
  3. An Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  4. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office by the President on the recommendation of the Election Commissioners.
  • A. 3 only
  • B. 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 2 and 4 only

Q3. The Election Commission of India first functioned as a multi-member body, with Election Commissioners in addition to the Chief Election Commissioner, with effect from which date?

  • A. 1 January 1990
  • B. 16 October 1989
  • C. 1 October 1993
  • D. 14 July 1995

Q4. Which one of the following best describes the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991?

  • A. A law that fixed the salaries of the CEC and ECs at the level of a Supreme Court judge but set out no procedure for appointing them
  • B. A law that required a Selection Committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition and the Chief Justice of India to appoint the CEC and ECs
  • C. A law that required the President to consult the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of Opposition before appointing the CEC
  • D. A law that placed a Union Cabinet Minister on the Selection Committee in place of the Chief Justice of India

Q5. Consider the following attributions relating to Supreme Court jurisprudence on a collegial Election Commission: 1. The warning that a CEC treating his own word as final would render the other Election Commissioners 'non-functional or ornamental' came in S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India (1991). 2. The writ petition decided in July 1995 was filed by the then Chief Election Commissioner himself, challenging the government's decision to make the Commission multi-member. 3. The Constitution Bench that upheld the multi-member Election Commission and quoted Dhanoa's reasoning with approval did so in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India. 4. The Supreme Court held that the Election Commissioners are at par with the Chief Election Commissioner. Which of the attributions given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The warning that a CEC treating his own word as final would render the other Election Commissioners 'non-functional or ornamental' came in S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India (1991).
  2. The writ petition decided in July 1995 was filed by the then Chief Election Commissioner himself, challenging the government's decision to make the Commission multi-member.
  3. The Constitution Bench that upheld the multi-member Election Commission and quoted Dhanoa's reasoning with approval did so in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India.
  4. The Supreme Court held that the Election Commissioners are at par with the Chief Election Commissioner.
  • A. 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 4 only
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q6. Consider the following statements comparing the S.S. Dhanoa (1991) and T.N. Seshan (1995) judgments: 1. Dhanoa was delivered before the 1993 appointment of two Election Commissioners, whereas Seshan decided a challenge arising out of those very appointments. 2. While Dhanoa cautioned against vesting the Commission's 'exclusive and uncontrolled' powers in one individual, Seshan held the Chief Election Commissioner to be superior to the Election Commissioners in decision-making. 3. Like the Seshan case, the 2023 ruling that directed a Prime Minister–Leader of Opposition–Chief Justice committee for appointments was delivered by a Constitution Bench. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Dhanoa was delivered before the 1993 appointment of two Election Commissioners, whereas Seshan decided a challenge arising out of those very appointments.
  2. While Dhanoa cautioned against vesting the Commission's 'exclusive and uncontrolled' powers in one individual, Seshan held the Chief Election Commissioner to be superior to the Election Commissioners in decision-making.
  3. Like the Seshan case, the 2023 ruling that directed a Prime Minister–Leader of Opposition–Chief Justice committee for appointments was delivered by a Constitution Bench.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, the Union Cabinet Minister who sits on the Selection Committee is nominated by whom?

  • A. The President of India
  • B. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • C. The Prime Minister
  • D. The Chief Justice of India

Q8. For the Selection Committee under the CEC and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, when no Leader of Opposition has been recognised, who fills that seat on the committee?

  • A. The Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
  • B. The leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha
  • C. The leader of the opposition party with most members across both Houses
  • D. A Member of Parliament nominated jointly by the Speaker and the Chairman

Q9. Consider the following pairs relating to the appointment of Election Commissioners: 1. Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (March 2023) — Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India, until Parliament enacts a law 2. CEC and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 — Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister 3. Goswami Committee (1990) — President to appoint the CEC after consulting the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of Opposition 4. Supreme Court split verdict (September 2026) — Justice Datta favoured referring the challenge to the 2023 Act to a larger bench Which of the pairs given above is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (March 2023) — Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India, until Parliament enacts a law
  2. CEC and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023 — Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister
  3. Goswami Committee (1990) — President to appoint the CEC after consulting the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of Opposition
  4. Supreme Court split verdict (September 2026) — Justice Datta favoured referring the challenge to the 2023 Act to a larger bench
  • A. 4 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q10. Consider the following statements comparing the 2026 dispute within the Election Commission of India with earlier episodes and the legal framework: 1. In the 1993–95 episode it was the Chief Election Commissioner who challenged the multi-member arrangement, whereas in 2026 the grievances were raised by two Election Commissioners against the Chief Election Commissioner. 2. While the governing law provides that differences within the Commission be settled by majority, the Commission maintained in September 2026 that all its decisions over the previous year had been unanimous. 3. The two Election Commissioners' formal objections, reportedly recorded 14 times in 10 months, related mainly to the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. In the 1993–95 episode it was the Chief Election Commissioner who challenged the multi-member arrangement, whereas in 2026 the grievances were raised by two Election Commissioners against the Chief Election Commissioner.
  2. While the governing law provides that differences within the Commission be settled by majority, the Commission maintained in September 2026 that all its decisions over the previous year had been unanimous.
  3. The two Election Commissioners' formal objections, reportedly recorded 14 times in 10 months, related mainly to the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Under Article 103, when it is questioned whether a sitting Member of Parliament has become disqualified on a ground such as holding an office of profit, the President must act according to the opinion of whom?

  • A. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • B. The Election Commission of India
  • C. The Supreme Court of India
  • D. The Attorney General for India

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and removal of certain constitutional and statutory authorities: 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General and the members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President without any statutory selection committee. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner, the Chief Information Commissioner and the Central Vigilance Commissioner are all necessarily selected by panels in which the Chief Justice of India is a member. 3. A State Election Commissioner cannot be removed except in the manner and on the grounds of a Judge of a High Court. 4. The Election Commission of India has functioned as a multi-member body continuously since October 1993, with differences resolved by majority. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Comptroller and Auditor General and the members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President without any statutory selection committee.
  2. The Chief Election Commissioner, the Chief Information Commissioner and the Central Vigilance Commissioner are all necessarily selected by panels in which the Chief Justice of India is a member.
  3. A State Election Commissioner cannot be removed except in the manner and on the grounds of a Judge of a High Court.
  4. The Election Commission of India has functioned as a multi-member body continuously since October 1993, with differences resolved by majority.
  • A. 2 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 4