UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — BJD seeks ‘urgent, decisive’ EC intervention on its Rajya Sabha polling complaint

Question 1

Which State has been allotted the largest number of seats in the Rajya Sabha under the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Maharashtra

Answer

Bihar

Answer

West Bengal

Question 2

In the election of Rajya Sabha members, the term 'single transferable vote' is best described as a system in which:

Accepted Answer

each MLA casts one vote marking candidates in order of preference, and votes surplus to the fixed quota are transferred according to the marked preferences

Answer

each MLA casts as many separate votes as there are seats to be filled, one for each candidate

Answer

each MLA's single vote is divided equally among all the contesting candidates

Answer

the candidate securing a simple majority of first-preference votes alone is declared elected

Question 3

Under Rule 41 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, which functionary at the polling station is authorised to issue a replacement ballot paper and to mark the returned one as 'Spoilt: cancelled'?

Accepted Answer

The Presiding Officer

Answer

The Chief Electoral Officer of the State

Answer

The District Election Officer

Answer

The Election Commission's Observer

Question 4

Under Rule 41 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, the sole ground on which an elector may be issued a fresh (replacement) ballot paper is that the:

Accepted Answer

original ballot paper was inadvertently dealt with so as to become incapable of being conveniently used

Answer

elector wishes to change the preferences already marked on the ballot paper

Answer

elector's chosen candidate had withdrawn after the ballot papers were printed

Answer

authorised party agent objected to the manner in which the ballot was marked

Question 5

Under which Article of the Constitution is the superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of all elections to Parliament and to the State Legislatures exclusively vested in the Election Commission of India?

Accepted Answer

Article 324

Answer

Article 326

Answer

Article 327

Answer

Article 329

Question 6

With reference to the mandate of the Election Commission of India under Article 324, consider the following: 1. Superintendence, direction and control of elections to both Houses of Parliament and to the State Legislatures. 2. Superintendence, direction and control of elections to the offices of the President and the Vice-President. 3. Superintendence, direction and control of elections to municipalities and panchayats. 4. Protection to the Chief Election Commissioner, who may be removed only in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified as features of Article 324?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 7

In the context of election machinery, the 'Chief Electoral Officer' of a State is best defined as the officer who:

Accepted Answer

is designated or nominated by the Election Commission, in consultation with the State Government, to supervise the conduct of elections and electoral rolls in the State

Answer

is elected by the members of the State Legislative Assembly to oversee elections in the State

Answer

is an officer of the Union Home Ministry deputed to command police and security arrangements during polls

Answer

is appointed by the Governor to conduct elections to local bodies within the State

Question 8

The Returning Officer for a parliamentary or assembly constituency is nominated or designated by which authority?

Accepted Answer

The Election Commission of India, in consultation with the State/UT Government

Answer

The State Government alone, subject to later ratification by the Election Commission

Answer

The Chief Electoral Officer of the State on his own authority

Answer

The District Election Officer in consultation with the District Magistrate

Question 9

The BJD's complaint arising from the 16 March 2026 Odisha Rajya Sabha election centres on the alleged illegal issuance of second ballot papers to two MLAs, which the party contends violated which provision?

Accepted Answer

Rule 41 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961

Answer

Rule 39AA of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961

Answer

Section 100 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Answer

Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Question 10

In a Rajya Sabha election, an MLA-elector is not bound by an anti-defection whip primarily because such elections are conducted by which authority, and are therefore not treated as proceedings of the Legislative Assembly?

Accepted Answer

The Election Commission of India

Answer

The Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly

Answer

The Rajya Sabha Secretariat

Answer

The State Election Commission

Question 11

Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, the Selection Committee that recommends the appointment of the CEC and the Election Commissioners comprises the following. 1. The Prime Minister. 2. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. 3. The Leader of the Opposition (or leader of the single largest opposition party) in the Lok Sabha. 4. The Chief Justice of India. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as a member of the Selection Committee?

Accepted Answer

4 only

Answer

2 and 4

Answer

3 only

Answer

1 and 4

Question 12

Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, within how many days of the date of election of the returned candidate must an election petition be presented to the High Court?

Accepted Answer

45 days

Answer

30 days

Answer

60 days

Answer

90 days

UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — BJD seeks ‘urgent, decisive’ EC intervention on its Rajya Sabha polling complaint

Q1. Which State has been allotted the largest number of seats in the Rajya Sabha under the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution?

Q2. In the election of Rajya Sabha members, the term 'single transferable vote' is best described as a system in which:

Q3. Under Rule 41 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, which functionary at the polling station is authorised to issue a replacement ballot paper and to mark the returned one as 'Spoilt: cancelled'?

Q4. Under Rule 41 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, the sole ground on which an elector may be issued a fresh (replacement) ballot paper is that the:

Q5. Under which Article of the Constitution is the superintendence, direction and control of the conduct of all elections to Parliament and to the State Legislatures exclusively vested in the Election Commission of India?

Q7. In the context of election machinery, the 'Chief Electoral Officer' of a State is best defined as the officer who:

Q8. The Returning Officer for a parliamentary or assembly constituency is nominated or designated by which authority?

Q9. The BJD's complaint arising from the 16 March 2026 Odisha Rajya Sabha election centres on the alleged illegal issuance of second ballot papers to two MLAs, which the party contends violated which provision?

Q10. In a Rajya Sabha election, an MLA-elector is not bound by an anti-defection whip primarily because such elections are conducted by which authority, and are therefore not treated as proceedings of the Legislative Assembly?

Q12. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, within how many days of the date of election of the returned candidate must an election petition be presented to the High Court?