UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Presiding officers bypassed Parliament in rejecting CEC removal notice: INDIA

Q1. Which of the following are correctly identified as consequences or features of Article 324(5) equating the Chief Election Commissioner with a Judge of the Supreme Court?

  1. The CEC enjoys the same security of tenure as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. The safeguard is intended to insulate the Election Commission from executive interference.
  3. Under the 1991 Act, the salary of the CEC was linked to that of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  4. Article 324(5) itself fixes the term of the CEC at six years.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q2. In the procedure for removal of the Chief Election Commissioner, the 'special majority' required for passage of the motion in each House means which one of the following?

  • A. A majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
  • B. A majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House
  • C. A simple majority of the members present and voting in that House
  • D. A two-thirds majority of the total membership and a simple majority of members present and voting

Q3. With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, which of the following are correctly identified?

  1. The Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
  2. A Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary prepares a panel of five names for consideration.
  3. The CEC and Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  4. The Act was enacted as an amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q4. If a motion for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner is initiated in the Rajya Sabha, the notice must be signed by at least how many members before the Chairman may consider admitting it?

  • A. 50
  • B. 100
  • C. 60
  • D. 75

Q5. The Opposition's April 2026 notice seeking the removal of Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar invoked the removal mechanism available under which one of the following provisions of the Constitution?

  • A. Article 324(5)
  • B. Article 324(2)
  • C. Article 61
  • D. Article 148

Q6. The Opposition notice against CEC Gyanesh Kumar that the presiding officers rejected in April 2026 was signed by a total of how many MPs of both Houses of Parliament?

  • A. 193
  • B. 130
  • C. 63
  • D. 243

Q7. Election-law matters and the CEC and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, are administered by, and appointment notifications for the Election Commission are issued through, which one of the following Union ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department)
  • B. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • C. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
  • D. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions