UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Parliament session, CJP rally plan key reasons for Wangchuk’s removal

Q1. With reference to the freedoms guaranteed to citizens under Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India as it stands today, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The right to freedom of speech and expression is a fundamental right under Article 19(1).
  2. The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is a fundamental right under Article 19(1).
  3. The right to acquire, hold and dispose of property is a fundamental right under Article 19(1).
  4. The right to form associations or unions is a fundamental right under Article 19(1).
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. The right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, and made a constitutional right under Article 300A, by which one of the following constitutional amendments?

  • A. The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971
  • B. The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
  • C. The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978
  • D. The Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977

Q3. Which one of the following best describes Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which was invoked in the context of protests near Parliament?

  • A. It empowers an Executive Magistrate to issue orders in urgent cases of apprehended danger, prohibiting or restricting gatherings to prevent disturbance of public tranquillity
  • B. It empowers only the High Court to ban all public assemblies for an indefinite period across a State
  • C. It provides for the mandatory hospitalisation of any person on hunger strike beyond seven days
  • D. It authorises the police to declare a state of emergency and suspend fundamental rights in a district

Q4. With reference to Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 as compared with its predecessor provision, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Section 163 of the BNSS corresponds to the erstwhile Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
  2. Unlike its predecessor, an order under Section 163 can be passed only by the Supreme Court and not by an Executive Magistrate.
  3. Like its predecessor, it can be invoked in urgent cases of apprehended danger to public tranquillity.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. With reference to Sonam Wangchuk and his work in Ladakh, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. He is the founding director of the Students' Educational and Cultural Movement of Ladakh (SECMOL).
  2. His Ice Stupa technique stores summer meltwater as a conical ice structure to be used during the winter months.
  3. He is a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q6. The 'Ice Stupa', a technique associated with Sonam Wangchuk, is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. An artificial glacier that freezes winter stream water into a conical ice mound to release meltwater for spring irrigation
  • B. A Buddhist reliquary monument built of compacted snow to mark high-altitude pilgrimage routes
  • C. A solar-heated mud building designed to keep Ladakhi homes warm through winter
  • D. An underground rainwater-harvesting tank that collects monsoon runoff in cold deserts

Q7. With reference to the penalties under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Use of unfair means in a public examination is punishable with imprisonment of three to five years and a fine up to Rs 10 lakh.
  2. Persons committing an organised crime under the Act are liable to imprisonment of five to ten years and a fine of at least Rs one crore.
  3. The Act applies only to recruitment examinations conducted by the SSC and UPSC and excludes entrance tests such as NEET and JEE.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. The Union Cabinet approved the creation of the National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts the NEET-UG examination, as an autonomous testing organisation in which one of the following years?

  • A. 2015
  • B. 2017
  • C. 2019
  • D. 2021

Q9. By established convention, how many sessions of Parliament are held in a normal year in India?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q10. The dates on which a session of Parliament is to be convened are, in practice, decided by which one of the following before being formalised in the name of the President?

  • A. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
  • B. The Ministry of Home Affairs
  • C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha in consultation with the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
  • D. The Business Advisory Committee of the Lok Sabha

Q11. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for which one of the following?

  • A. Administration of certain tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils
  • B. The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States through three lists
  • C. The languages recognised for official purposes of the Union and the States
  • D. The provisions relating to disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection

Q12. Peaceful demonstrations and hunger strikes by civil society groups in India derive their primary constitutional protection principally from which one of the following?

  • A. Article 19(1)(a) and Article 19(1)(b) — freedom of speech and expression, and the right to assemble peaceably and without arms
  • B. Article 21 — protection of life and personal liberty
  • C. Article 25 — freedom of conscience and free profession of religion
  • D. Article 32 — the right to constitutional remedies