UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — HC seeks CBI, ED response on complaint against LoP

Q1. The writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 is, in one principal respect, WIDER than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32. That single widest distinguishing feature is that a High Court may issue writs—

  • A. for the enforcement of fundamental rights and also 'for any other purpose'
  • B. only during the operation of a National Emergency
  • C. solely for the enforcement of fundamental rights under Part III
  • D. only against authorities located within the Union Territory of Delhi

Q2. How many types (nature) of writs can a High Court issue in exercise of its jurisdiction under Article 226?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Six

Q3. With reference to the office of the Leader of the Opposition (LoP) in the Lok Sabha, consider the following: 1. Statutory recognition of the office flows from the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. 2. The LoP is the leader, in the House, of the party in opposition having the greatest numerical strength, recognised as such by the Speaker. 3. The 1977 Act itself makes recognition conditional on the party holding at least one-tenth of the total seats of the House. 4. Under the 1977 Act the LoP draws salary at the rates fixed for a Cabinet-rank Minister. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Statutory recognition of the office flows from the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
  2. The LoP is the leader, in the House, of the party in opposition having the greatest numerical strength, recognised as such by the Speaker.
  3. The 1977 Act itself makes recognition conditional on the party holding at least one-tenth of the total seats of the House.
  4. Under the 1977 Act the LoP draws salary at the rates fixed for a Cabinet-rank Minister.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1 and 3
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. For the purposes of the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, the expression 'Leader of the Opposition' means—

  • A. the leader of the party in opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and recognised as such by the Speaker
  • B. the leader of the second-largest party in the House irrespective of recognition by the Speaker
  • C. the senior-most member, by age, among all opposition members of the House
  • D. the leader of any political party that is not part of the ruling coalition

Q5. Consider the following statements about the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): 1. Its statutory power flows from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. 2. To investigate within a State (not being a Union Territory), it requires the consent of that State Government. 3. Its Director is appointed by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the CJI or his nominee. 4. It was constituted as a statutory body directly by the Companies Act, 2013. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Its statutory power flows from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
  2. To investigate within a State (not being a Union Territory), it requires the consent of that State Government.
  3. Its Director is appointed by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the CJI or his nominee.
  4. It was constituted as a statutory body directly by the Companies Act, 2013.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 2 only

Q6. Consider the following statements comparing the CBI with an ordinary State police force: 1. Unlike a State police force, the CBI must obtain the concerned State Government's consent to exercise powers in that State. 2. Administrative superintendence of the CBI vests in the Department of Personnel and Training, whereas a State police force falls under its State Home Department. 3. Both the CBI and the State police derive their very existence from the same statute, the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Unlike a State police force, the CBI must obtain the concerned State Government's consent to exercise powers in that State.
  2. Administrative superintendence of the CBI vests in the Department of Personnel and Training, whereas a State police force falls under its State Home Department.
  3. Both the CBI and the State police derive their very existence from the same statute, the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is most accurately described as—

  • A. an agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, enforcing the PMLA, 2002 and FEMA, 1999
  • B. an agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs enforcing the PMLA, 2002 and the DSPE Act, 1946
  • C. a statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs enforcing FEMA, 1999 alone
  • D. an investigation wing of the CBI enforcing anti-corruption laws

Q8. Consider the following statutes: 1. Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 3. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 4. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 Which of the above is/are correctly identified as enforced/administered by the Enforcement Directorate?

  1. Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002
  2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
  3. Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018
  4. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4

Q9. In the Allahabad High Court proceedings arising from complaints against the Leader of Opposition, the plea was moved as a 'criminal writ petition'. In this context, that term is best understood as—

  • A. a writ petition invoking the High Court's Article 226 jurisdiction in a matter of a criminal character
  • B. a petition that can be filed only in the Supreme Court under Article 32
  • C. a petition that must always result in the immediate registration of an FIR
  • D. an appeal filed against a criminal conviction already recorded by a trial court

Q10. Consider the following grounds: 1. Holding an office of profit under the Government of India or a State (other than an exempted office). 2. Ceasing to be a citizen of India or voluntarily acquiring the citizenship of a foreign State. 3. Being of unsound mind, so declared by a competent court. 4. Being below 25 years of age. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as a ground for disqualification of a sitting member under Article 102?

  1. Holding an office of profit under the Government of India or a State (other than an exempted office).
  2. Ceasing to be a citizen of India or voluntarily acquiring the citizenship of a foreign State.
  3. Being of unsound mind, so declared by a competent court.
  4. Being below 25 years of age.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q11. In the common-law doctrine of natural justice, how many core (twin) principles form its foundation?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

Q12. The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) was accorded statutory status under which one of the following?

  • A. Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013
  • B. Section 3 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946
  • C. Section 5 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002
  • D. Section 24 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992