UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Breakdown of civic infra in India
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the scheme of urban local government introduced by the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992:
1. "Urban planning including town planning" and "regulation of land-use and construction of buildings" figure among the matters listed in the Twelfth Schedule.
2. Article 243W makes it obligatory on every State Legislature to devolve all the matters listed in the Twelfth Schedule on its municipalities.
3. Ward Committees are to be constituted within the territorial area of a Municipality having a population of three lakh or more.
4. A Metropolitan Planning Committee is to be constituted for every metropolitan area having a population of ten lakh or more.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- "Urban planning including town planning" and "regulation of land-use and construction of buildings" figure among the matters listed in the Twelfth Schedule.
- Article 243W makes it obligatory on every State Legislature to devolve all the matters listed in the Twelfth Schedule on its municipalities.
- Ward Committees are to be constituted within the territorial area of a Municipality having a population of three lakh or more.
- A Metropolitan Planning Committee is to be constituted for every metropolitan area having a population of ten lakh or more.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 4
- D. 3 and 4
Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the two planning committees provided for in the Constitution:
1. The District Planning Committee consolidates the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district, whereas the Metropolitan Planning Committee prepares a draft development plan for the metropolitan area.
2. The constitution of District Planning Committees is treated as a mandatory provision flowing from the amendment, whereas the actual devolution of Twelfth Schedule functions is left to the discretion of the State Legislature.
3. Unlike the Metropolitan Planning Committee, which is provided for in the Part of the Constitution dealing with Municipalities, the District Planning Committee is provided for in the Part dealing with Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The District Planning Committee consolidates the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district, whereas the Metropolitan Planning Committee prepares a draft development plan for the metropolitan area.
- The constitution of District Planning Committees is treated as a mandatory provision flowing from the amendment, whereas the actual devolution of Twelfth Schedule functions is left to the discretion of the State Legislature.
- Unlike the Metropolitan Planning Committee, which is provided for in the Part of the Constitution dealing with Municipalities, the District Planning Committee is provided for in the Part dealing with Panchayats.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Consider the following:
1. Mandatory inclusion of a complete rainwater-harvesting proposal in building plans submitted for sanction for plots of 100 sq.m. and above.
2. Norms and standards for electric vehicle charging infrastructure.
3. Provisions for structural safety of buildings in strict compliance with the National Building Code.
4. The 'Standardized Development and Building Regulations, 2023' notified to ensure safety, accessibility and sustainability in construction.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified as contents of the Model Building Bye-Laws (MBBL), 2016?
- Mandatory inclusion of a complete rainwater-harvesting proposal in building plans submitted for sanction for plots of 100 sq.m. and above.
- Norms and standards for electric vehicle charging infrastructure.
- Provisions for structural safety of buildings in strict compliance with the National Building Code.
- The 'Standardized Development and Building Regulations, 2023' notified to ensure safety, accessibility and sustainability in construction.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Model Building Bye-Laws are drafted by the Town and Country Planning Organisation, whereas the National Building Code of India is brought out by the Bureau of Indian Standards.
2. Unlike the first Model Building Bye-Laws issued in 2004, the 2016 version is binding on all States and Urban Local Bodies, which have no discretion to modify it.
3. The rainwater-harvesting feature of the Model Building Bye-Laws, 2016 has been adopted by 33 States/Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Model Building Bye-Laws are drafted by the Town and Country Planning Organisation, whereas the National Building Code of India is brought out by the Bureau of Indian Standards.
- Unlike the first Model Building Bye-Laws issued in 2004, the 2016 version is binding on all States and Urban Local Bodies, which have no discretion to modify it.
- The rainwater-harvesting feature of the Model Building Bye-Laws, 2016 has been adopted by 33 States/Union Territories.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. Consider the following pairs of function and the authority that discharges it in relation to centrally protected monuments:
1. Administrative control of the National Monuments Authority — Ministry of Culture
2. Grant of permission for construction or repair in a regulated area around a protected monument — competent authority under the AMASR Act
3. Sealing of an illegal construction site situated within a prohibited area — Archaeological Survey of India
4. Eviction of an unauthorised occupant from a protected monument or protected area — District Magistrate/Collector
Which of the pairs given above is/are NOT correctly matched?
- Administrative control of the National Monuments Authority — Ministry of Culture
- Grant of permission for construction or repair in a regulated area around a protected monument — competent authority under the AMASR Act
- Sealing of an illegal construction site situated within a prohibited area — Archaeological Survey of India
- Eviction of an unauthorised occupant from a protected monument or protected area — District Magistrate/Collector
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 only
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 1 and 4
Q6. Consider the following statements about the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act:
1. The Act was enacted in 1958.
2. Construction in a regulated area without the previous permission of the competent authority is punishable with imprisonment not exceeding two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.
3. The prohibited area extends to 100 metres from the boundary of a protected monument, and the regulated area extends to a further 200 metres beyond the prohibited area.
4. The uniform prohibited-area and regulated-area limits were introduced into the Act by its amendment of 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Act was enacted in 1958.
- Construction in a regulated area without the previous permission of the competent authority is punishable with imprisonment not exceeding two years, or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both.
- The prohibited area extends to 100 metres from the boundary of a protected monument, and the regulated area extends to a further 200 metres beyond the prohibited area.
- The uniform prohibited-area and regulated-area limits were introduced into the Act by its amendment of 1972.
- A. 1 and 4 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1 and 3 only
Q7. In the municipal enforcement drives launched against illegal buildings in Indian cities, a structure is classified as an 'unauthorised construction' primarily when it:
- A. Is raised on land whose ownership title is pending adjudication before a civil court
- B. Is raised without the local body's permission or in deviation from the sanctioned building plan
- C. Exceeds the floor area ratio prescribed for the locality by the National Building Code
- D. Is occupied before a completion certificate is obtained from the fire services department
Q8. After the September 2026 collapse of a five-storey paying-guest building at Satya Niketan, which one of the following agencies conducted the city-wide sealing and demolition drive against unauthorised buildings and suspended five of its own engineers in connection with the incident?
- A. Delhi Development Authority
- B. Delhi Urban Shelter Improvement Board
- C. Municipal Corporation of Delhi
- D. New Delhi Municipal Council
Q9. Under the pan-India directions laid down by the Supreme Court on demolition of residential properties, where the local municipal law does not prescribe a longer period, how many days must be allowed to the owner to respond to the show-cause notice before demolition?
- A. 7 days
- B. 15 days
- C. 30 days
- D. 60 days
Q10. Under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, an officer of the Central Government who permits, conceals or connives at construction or re-construction in a prohibited or regulated area is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
- A. Six months
- B. One year
- C. Two years
- D. Three years
Q11. The Urban and Regional Development Plans Formulation and Implementation (URDPFI) Guidelines, 2014 were prepared by which one of the following?
- A. National Institute of Urban Affairs, an autonomous body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- B. Town and Country Planning Organisation, the technical arm of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- C. Bureau of Indian Standards, the national standards body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs
- D. National Disaster Management Authority, the apex disaster management body under the Ministry of Home Affairs
Q12. Which one of the following is the apex body that lays down policies, plans and guidelines for disaster management in India and has issued the 'Guidelines on Seismic Retrofitting of Deficient Buildings and Structures' and the 'Simplified Guidelines for Earthquake Safety' based on the National Building Code, 2016?
- A. National Institute of Disaster Management
- B. National Disaster Response Force
- C. National Disaster Management Authority
- D. Bureau of Indian Standards