UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — After SC refusal to halt CJP march, police seek quashing of FIRs against protesters

Q1. With reference to the provision that empowers the Supreme Court of India to pass such decree or order as is necessary for doing 'complete justice', which one of the following statements is correct?

  • A. It was enacted by the Constituent Assembly on 27 May 1949 and has no counterpart in most major written Constitutions of the world
  • B. It was enacted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949 and was modelled on a corresponding clause of the Constitution of the United States
  • C. It was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, along with the provisions relating to administrative tribunals
  • D. It flows not from the Constitution but from rules framed by the Supreme Court with the approval of the President

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the Supreme Court's power to do 'complete justice' with its other powers and with its own recent pronouncements: 1. Unlike the writ jurisdiction under Article 32, which is available for the enforcement of fundamental rights, the power under Article 142 may be exercised in any cause or matter pending before the Supreme Court. 2. An empirical study released in 2024 found that while the Court referred to Article 142 or 'complete justice' in over 1,500 cases decided between 1950 and 2023, it explicitly exercised the power in fewer than half of those cases. 3. In November 2025 the Supreme Court held that Article 142 enables it to substitute the decision of a Governor or of the President where they do not act within a reasonable time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Unlike the writ jurisdiction under Article 32, which is available for the enforcement of fundamental rights, the power under Article 142 may be exercised in any cause or matter pending before the Supreme Court.
  2. An empirical study released in 2024 found that while the Court referred to Article 142 or 'complete justice' in over 1,500 cases decided between 1950 and 2023, it explicitly exercised the power in fewer than half of those cases.
  3. In November 2025 the Supreme Court held that Article 142 enables it to substitute the decision of a Governor or of the President where they do not act within a reasonable time.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. The Supreme Court's October 2020 judgment delivered on a plea moved by advocate Amit Sahni is regarded as the leading authority on which one of the following propositions?

  • A. Public ways and public spaces cannot be occupied indefinitely by demonstrators, and prolonged protest must give way at designated sites
  • B. Prior written permission of the police is a precondition for every assembly, and its refusal is not open to judicial review
  • C. The freedom to assemble peaceably may be curtailed only on the ground of the sovereignty and integrity of India, and on no other ground
  • D. Authorities may regulate the time, place and manner of a demonstration, but protest itself enjoys no constitutional protection

Q4. An executive magistrate's order prohibiting a proposed procession in a locality, on the apprehension that it is likely to disturb public peace, is now passed under which one of the following provisions?

  • A. Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
  • B. Section 144 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
  • C. Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
  • D. Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

Q5. In criminal procedure, the expression 'inherent powers' of the High Court — the source ordinarily relied upon when an FIR is quashed — is best understood as referring to which one of the following?

  • A. Powers not conferred by any express provision but saved by the Code, to prevent abuse of the process of any court or to secure the ends of justice
  • B. Powers exercisable over the orders of subordinate criminal courts when a reference is made to the High Court by a Sessions Judge
  • C. Powers to reopen and review its own signed judgment in a criminal case whenever fresh evidence is subsequently discovered
  • D. Powers to withdraw a case from one criminal court and make it over to another within the State on the Public Prosecutor's application

Q6. With reference to the legal framework governing the quashing of criminal proceedings in India, consider the following: 1. Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 corresponds to Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in saving the inherent powers of the High Court. 2. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 was enacted to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. 3. Where a revision petition is available to an aggrieved party, the High Court is barred from exercising its inherent power to quash the proceedings. 4. Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 confers on the Supreme Court the inherent power to quash a first information report. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 corresponds to Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in saving the inherent powers of the High Court.
  2. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 was enacted to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
  3. Where a revision petition is available to an aggrieved party, the High Court is barred from exercising its inherent power to quash the proceedings.
  4. Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 confers on the Supreme Court the inherent power to quash a first information report.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4

Q7. The body that conducts the NEET (UG) examination has which one of the following institutional characters?

  • A. A society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, functioning as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education
  • B. A statutory body constituted under an Act of Parliament, functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education
  • C. An attached office of the Department of School Education and Literacy, headed by a Director General of the rank of Additional Secretary
  • D. An autonomous body of the University Grants Commission, established under the provisions of the UGC Act, 1956

Q8. In the NEET (UG) 2026 question paper leak, the lead investigation was entrusted to which one of the following, and under which special law in addition to the general penal law?

  • A. The Central Bureau of Investigation, its FIR invoking the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
  • B. The Special Operations Group of the Rajasthan Police, its FIR invoking the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
  • C. The National Investigation Agency, its FIR invoking the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
  • D. The Economic Offences Wing of the Delhi Police, its FIR invoking the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023

Q9. Consider the following statements about BRICS with reference to India's 2026 Chairship: 1. The 2026 Chairship is India's fourth, the earlier ones having been held in 2012, 2016 and 2021. 2. South Africa joined the grouping in 2010, whereas Indonesia became a full member in 2025. 3. Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, the United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia were admitted as full members in 2021, the year India last chaired the grouping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2026 Chairship is India's fourth, the earlier ones having been held in 2012, 2016 and 2021.
  2. South Africa joined the grouping in 2010, whereas Indonesia became a full member in 2025.
  3. Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, the United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia were admitted as full members in 2021, the year India last chaired the grouping.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. The overall coordination of India's BRICS 2026 Chairship, including the Sherpas' track and the presentation of India's priorities across thematic areas, rests with which one of the following?

  • A. The Ministry of External Affairs, which also launched the BRICS India 2026 logo, theme and website
  • B. The Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance, which leads the grouping's Sherpa engagements
  • C. NITI Aayog, which acts as the national coordinating agency for India's plurilateral summit hosting
  • D. The Cabinet Secretariat, through an inter-ministerial committee chaired by the Cabinet Secretary

Q11. Following the legislative change made in 2026, what is the sanctioned strength of Judges of the Supreme Court of India?

  • A. 37 Judges besides the Chief Justice of India, raised from 33 by an Ordinance later replaced by an Act
  • B. 33 Judges besides the Chief Justice of India, as fixed in 2019 and left untouched by the 2026 legislation
  • C. 37 Judges including the Chief Justice of India, raised from 34 by an amendment enacted in 2026
  • D. 38 Judges besides the Chief Justice of India, raised from 34 by an Ordinance promulgated in May 2026

Q12. With reference to the law officers of the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Attorney General for India is appointed by the President from among persons qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. Appointments of Additional Solicitors General are approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, ordinarily for a term of three years. 3. The office of the Solicitor General of India is created by Article 76 of the Constitution, which also provides for Additional Solicitors General. 4. Proposals relating to the appointment of the Attorney General, the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are dealt with by the Department of Justice in the Ministry of Home Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Attorney General for India is appointed by the President from among persons qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. Appointments of Additional Solicitors General are approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, ordinarily for a term of three years.
  3. The office of the Solicitor General of India is created by Article 76 of the Constitution, which also provides for Additional Solicitors General.
  4. Proposals relating to the appointment of the Attorney General, the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are dealt with by the Department of Justice in the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 2, 3 and 4