UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — SC raps probe agencies for ‘dragging feet’ in powerful persons’ cases

Q1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar singled out one provision of the Constitution of India as its 'heart and soul', being the right that makes the remaining Fundamental Rights judicially enforceable. Which one of the following is that provision, correctly described?

  • A. Article 32 — the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III
  • B. Article 14 — the guarantee that the State shall treat all persons identically in all circumstances without any classification whatsoever
  • C. Article 21 — the guarantee that no person shall ever be deprived of his personal liberty by the State under any circumstances
  • D. Article 20 — the guarantee of complete immunity to every person from being compelled to be a witness in any proceeding whatsoever

Q2. The guarantee of 'equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws' within the territory of India is contained in which Article of the Constitution, and to whom is that guarantee available?

  • A. Article 15, and it is available to citizens as well as non-citizens
  • B. Article 14, and it is available only to citizens of India
  • C. Article 16, and it is available only to citizens of India
  • D. Article 14, and it is available to citizens as well as non-citizens

Q3. The tenure of the Director of Enforcement is governed by which statute as amended, and up to what maximum period may that tenure run from the date of initial appointment?

  • A. The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, as amended in 2021 — up to five years in all
  • B. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, as amended in 2021 — up to five years in all
  • C. The Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, as amended in 2019 — up to two years only
  • D. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, as amended in 2021 — up to three years in all

Q4. Under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, the expression 'twin conditions' governing the grant of bail refers to which one of the following?

  • A. That the arresting officer must have reason to believe recorded in writing, and must forward the material in his possession to the Adjudicating Authority in a sealed envelope
  • B. That the accused must have been in custody for a substantial period, and that the trial is unlikely to be concluded within a reasonable time
  • C. That the Public Prosecutor must be given an opportunity to oppose the application, and that the court must be satisfied that the accused is not guilty and is unlikely to reoffend on bail
  • D. That the Special Court must have taken cognisance on a written complaint, and that the accused must have been furnished the grounds of arrest in writing

Q5. In the 2026 Supreme Court proceedings in which the Bench observed that probe agencies 'drag their feet' in cases involving persons in authority, the agency pressing for custodial interrogation of the petitioner functions under which department and ministry?

  • A. The Enforcement Directorate, under the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • B. The Enforcement Directorate, under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
  • C. The Central Bureau of Investigation, under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
  • D. The Central Bureau of Investigation, under the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Q6. With reference to the Supreme Court's orders and observations in the Salboni land-grabbing matter (2026), consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court stayed the arrest of the petitioner while directing him to appear for interrogation and to cooperate with the investigators. 2. The interrogation was to be conducted between 10 a.m. and 6 p.m., without an advocate or companion being present. 3. The Calcutta High Court had earlier held that custodial interrogation of the petitioner could not be ruled out, while itself criticising the intensity of the probe. 4. The Supreme Court permanently barred the Enforcement Directorate from ever seeking custodial interrogation of the petitioner in this case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Supreme Court stayed the arrest of the petitioner while directing him to appear for interrogation and to cooperate with the investigators.
  2. The interrogation was to be conducted between 10 a.m. and 6 p.m., without an advocate or companion being present.
  3. The Calcutta High Court had earlier held that custodial interrogation of the petitioner could not be ruled out, while itself criticising the intensity of the probe.
  4. The Supreme Court permanently barred the Enforcement Directorate from ever seeking custodial interrogation of the petitioner in this case.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. Consider the following statements comparing the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Directorate of Enforcement (ED): 1. The CBI derives its police powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. 2. The ED functions under the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance and enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. 3. The CBI may take up investigation of an offence in any State on its own motion, without requiring the consent of the State Government in any case. 4. Superintendence over the CBI in respect of the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act vests entirely with the Ministry of Home Affairs. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The CBI derives its police powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
  2. The ED functions under the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance and enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
  3. The CBI may take up investigation of an offence in any State on its own motion, without requiring the consent of the State Government in any case.
  4. Superintendence over the CBI in respect of the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act vests entirely with the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • A. 3 and 4 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 4 only

Q8. The Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation is appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of a committee consisting of which of the following?

  • A. The Prime Minister, the Union Home Minister, and the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India
  • B. The Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India
  • C. The Central Vigilance Commissioner, along with the Secretaries of the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Department of Personnel and Training and the Department of Revenue
  • D. The President of India, the Prime Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, with the Central Vigilance Commissioner as a permanent invitee

Q9. The Salboni land-grabbing case, in which the Enforcement Directorate alleges the transfer of about ₹30 crore to a company linked to a sitting Member of Parliament, arises from which district, and which High Court had earlier expressed 'despair' at the lack of intensity of the investigation?

  • A. Purba Medinipur district; the Calcutta High Court
  • B. Bankura district; the Calcutta High Court
  • C. Paschim Medinipur district; the Calcutta High Court
  • D. Paschim Medinipur district; the Orissa High Court

Q10. Which one of the following is the leading Supreme Court decision that upheld the constitutional validity of the core enforcement provisions of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, and is correctly described?

  • A. Nikesh Tarachand Shah v. Union of India (2017), which held that twin conditions for bail can never be imposed in respect of any offence
  • B. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014), which held that arrest is prohibited in all offences punishable with imprisonment
  • C. Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI (2022), which held that bail must be granted automatically in every economic offence
  • D. Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v. Union of India (2022), which upheld the Enforcement Directorate's power to record statements under Section 50

Q11. Consider the following statements comparing the Supreme Court Bench hearing the review petitions against the 2022 Prevention of Money-Laundering Act verdict with the Bench that delivered that verdict: 1. The three-judge Bench constituted in August 2026 to hear the review petitions comprises Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, Justice Joymalya Bagchi and Justice V. Mohana. 2. The 2022 judgment upholding the PMLA provisions was delivered by a three-judge Bench led by Justice D.Y. Chandrachud. 3. Unlike the 2022 Bench, the 2026 review Bench has been asked to reconsider, among other things, the reverse burden of proof under Section 24 and the refusal to place the ECIR on the same footing as an FIR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The three-judge Bench constituted in August 2026 to hear the review petitions comprises Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, Justice Joymalya Bagchi and Justice V. Mohana.
  2. The 2022 judgment upholding the PMLA provisions was delivered by a three-judge Bench led by Justice D.Y. Chandrachud.
  3. Unlike the 2022 Bench, the 2026 review Bench has been asked to reconsider, among other things, the reverse burden of proof under Section 24 and the refusal to place the ECIR on the same footing as an FIR.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3