UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Opposition and govt. spar over NEET debate in RS
Q1. Rule 267, invoked by the Opposition in the 2026 NEET standoff, forms part of the 'Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States'. The power of the House to frame such rules of procedure flows from which provision of the Constitution?
- A. Article 118, which empowers each House of Parliament to make rules regulating its own procedure and conduct of business
- B. Article 105, which deals with the powers, privileges and immunities of Houses of Parliament and their members
- C. Article 100, which governs voting, quorum and the presiding officer's casting vote in the Houses
- D. Article 108, which provides for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a legislative deadlock
Q2. When a notice under Rule 267 is submitted to suspend the day's listed business for an urgent discussion, whose decision determines whether it is admitted?
- A. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who has the discretion to admit or reject the notice
- B. The Business Advisory Committee, which allots time for all matters taken up by the House
- C. The Secretary-General of the Rajya Sabha, who maintains the record of the day's listed business
- D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, acting in consultation with the Rajya Sabha Chairman
Q3. Among the entrance examinations conducted by the National Testing Agency, how many times a year is JEE (Main) normally held?
- A. Once
- B. Twice
- C. Thrice
- D. Four times
Q4. The National Testing Agency, which conducts NEET-UG, functions as an autonomous body under which Union Ministry?
- A. Ministry of Education
- B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- C. Ministry of Science and Technology
- D. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Q5. NEET, struck down as unconstitutional in 2013, was revived in 2016 after the Supreme Court recalled its earlier judgment. This recall was achieved through the acceptance of which type of plea?
- A. A review petition seeking reconsideration of the court's own earlier judgment
- B. A curative petition invoked as the last resort after a review petition has been dismissed
- C. A special leave petition seeking permission to appeal against a lower court's order
- D. A writ of mandamus directing a public authority to perform a statutory duty
Q6. NEET was first struck down as unconstitutional on 18 July 2013 by a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court headed by which Chief Justice of India?
- A. Altamas Kabir
- B. P. Sathasivam
- C. R.M. Lodha
- D. H.L. Dattu
Q7. The investigation into the 2024 NEET-UG paper leak, initially handled by the Bihar Police, was ultimately taken over and led by which central agency?
- A. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- B. National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- C. Enforcement Directorate (ED)
- D. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
Q8. The CBI's first chargesheet in the 2024 NEET-UG paper leak case invoked offences under which body of law?
- A. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
- B. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
- C. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
- D. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
Q9. During the 2026 Monsoon Session standoff, J.P. Nadda acted in the Rajya Sabha in the capacity of 'Leader of the House'. What does this office denote?
- A. A minister who is a member of that House, nominated by the Prime Minister to steer government business in it
- B. The senior-most member of the largest Opposition party recognised by the presiding officer
- C. The presiding officer who conducts proceedings when the Chairman is absent from the House
- D. The permanent administrative head of the House's secretariat who advises on procedure
Q10. The alleged leak that triggered the 2026 Rajya Sabha logjam concerned NEET-UG. Which body actually conducts the NEET-UG examination?
- A. National Testing Agency (NTA)
- B. National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS)
- C. Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
- D. University Grants Commission (UGC)
Q11. With reference to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, consider the following statements:
1. Offences under the Act are cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable.
2. A candidate resorting to unfair means may be punished with imprisonment of three to five years and a fine up to ten lakh rupees.
3. A service provider found guilty may be barred from conducting public examinations for a period of four years.
4. Only the State Governments are empowered to notify the examinations covered under the Schedule to the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- Offences under the Act are cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable.
- A candidate resorting to unfair means may be punished with imprisonment of three to five years and a fine up to ten lakh rupees.
- A service provider found guilty may be barred from conducting public examinations for a period of four years.
- Only the State Governments are empowered to notify the examinations covered under the Schedule to the Act.
- A. 4 only
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 3 and 4 only
- D. 2 only
Q12. With reference to the presiding officers of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice-President of India and is not a member of the House.
2. The Deputy Chairman is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from among themselves.
3. Harivansh Narayan Singh, re-elected Deputy Chairman in April 2026, is the first nominated member to hold that post.
4. When presiding over the House, the Deputy Chairman has no casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly identified?
- The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice-President of India and is not a member of the House.
- The Deputy Chairman is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from among themselves.
- Harivansh Narayan Singh, re-elected Deputy Chairman in April 2026, is the first nominated member to hold that post.
- When presiding over the House, the Deputy Chairman has no casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
- A. 1, 2 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 3 and 4 only