UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Opposition set to maintain pressure on Shah, take part in debate on paper leak Bill

Q1. As originally enacted in 2024, which one of the following offences relating to public examinations attracts the highest minimum term of imprisonment?

  • A. Resorting to unfair means such as leakage of a question paper by an individual person
  • B. Commission of an organised crime in relation to a public examination by a group acting for wrongful gain
  • C. Connivance of a director or a person in senior management of an examination service provider in an offence
  • D. Failure of an examination service provider to report a suspected offence to the police authorities

Q2. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 was piloted in the Lok Sabha by which one of the following Union Ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Education, which oversees the National Testing Agency and central entrance examinations
  • B. Ministry of Home Affairs, which handles law and order and central investigating agencies
  • C. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, which handles recruitment policy matters
  • D. Ministry of Law and Justice, which handles criminal law and the setting up of special courts

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026: 1. The maximum fine for a person resorting to unfair means is proposed to be raised from ten lakh rupees to fifty lakh rupees. 2. Trials before the designated Special Fast Track Courts are to be completed within three months from the date of filing of the charge sheet. 3. The period of debarment of an errant examination service provider is proposed to be extended from four years to eight years. 4. The investigation into an offence is required to be completed within thirty days of registration of the case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The maximum fine for a person resorting to unfair means is proposed to be raised from ten lakh rupees to fifty lakh rupees.
  2. Trials before the designated Special Fast Track Courts are to be completed within three months from the date of filing of the charge sheet.
  3. The period of debarment of an errant examination service provider is proposed to be extended from four years to eight years.
  4. The investigation into an offence is required to be completed within thirty days of registration of the case.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q4. Under the amendment proposed in 2026 to the anti-paper-leak law, an examination service provider found guilty of an offence may be barred from being assigned any public examination for a maximum period of how many years?

  • A. Four years
  • B. Six years
  • C. Eight years
  • D. Ten years

Q5. Consider the following statements comparing the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 with the Amendment Bill introduced in 2026: 1. Under the parent Act, organised crime in relation to a public examination is punishable with imprisonment of not less than five years, which the Amendment Bill proposes to raise to not less than seven years. 2. The maximum fine for organised crime is proposed to be raised from one crore rupees to ten crore rupees. 3. The Amendment Bill leaves the imprisonment for a person resorting to unfair means unchanged at three to five years, and enhances only the fine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under the parent Act, organised crime in relation to a public examination is punishable with imprisonment of not less than five years, which the Amendment Bill proposes to raise to not less than seven years.
  2. The maximum fine for organised crime is proposed to be raised from one crore rupees to ten crore rupees.
  3. The Amendment Bill leaves the imprisonment for a person resorting to unfair means unchanged at three to five years, and enhances only the fine.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Consider the following political parties: 1. Indian National Congress 2. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam 3. Bahujan Samaj Party 4. Samajwadi Party Which of the above is/are correctly identified as constituents of the Indian National Developmental Inclusive Alliance (INDIA) formed in 2023?

  1. Indian National Congress
  2. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
  3. Bahujan Samaj Party
  4. Samajwadi Party
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. When Opposition parties negotiate how much of the House's time their side will get to speak on a Government Bill, the allotment of that time is settled by which one of the following bodies in the Lok Sabha?

  • A. The Rules Committee, which considers matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House
  • B. The Business Advisory Committee, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • C. The General Purposes Committee, which advises on matters not covered by any other committee
  • D. The Committee on Government Assurances, which examines undertakings given on the floor of the House

Q8. Consider the following statements about the devices available to members for raising matters against the Government in Parliament: 1. The adoption of an adjournment motion is regarded as a sort of censure of the Government. 2. To be admissible, an adjournment motion must relate to a matter of sufficient public importance warranting interruption of the normal business of the House. 3. A question of privilege may be raised on the floor by any member at any time, and the presiding officer's consent is never required for it. 4. The recommendations of the Business Advisory Committee on time to be allotted are binding on the Speaker, who has no discretion in the matter. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The adoption of an adjournment motion is regarded as a sort of censure of the Government.
  2. To be admissible, an adjournment motion must relate to a matter of sufficient public importance warranting interruption of the normal business of the House.
  3. A question of privilege may be raised on the floor by any member at any time, and the presiding officer's consent is never required for it.
  4. The recommendations of the Business Advisory Committee on time to be allotted are binding on the Speaker, who has no discretion in the matter.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q9. In parliamentary practice in India, the device known as 'Calling Attention' refers to which one of the following?

  • A. A procedure by which a member invites a Minister to make a brief statement on a matter of urgent public importance, after which members may seek clarifications
  • B. A motion taking the Government to task for a recent act of omission or commission, the adoption of which amounts to censure of the Government
  • C. A notice alleging that the privileges of the House or of a member have been breached, which can be pursued only with the consent of the presiding officer
  • D. A discussion arising out of the reply given to a question, in which no formal motion is moved before the House and no voting takes place

Q10. The Monsoon Session of Parliament convened in 2026 was scheduled to provide how many sittings?

  • A. 15 sittings
  • B. 19 sittings
  • C. 21 sittings
  • D. 25 sittings

Q11. How many Bills were passed by both Houses of Parliament during the Budget Session held in 2026?

  • A. Nine Bills
  • B. Fourteen Bills
  • C. Twenty-two Bills
  • D. Every Bill listed in the legislative agenda for that session