UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Govt. introduces paper leak Bill in Lok Sabha; debate likely today

Q1. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 was piloted in the Lok Sabha by a Minister of State attached to which one of the following Ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Education, Department of Higher Education
  • B. Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Internal Security
  • C. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • D. Ministry of Law and Justice, Legislative Department

Q2. With reference to the changes proposed by the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 to the parent Act of 2024, consider the following: 1. Imprisonment for a person resorting to unfair means is raised to not less than five years, extendable up to ten years. 2. The maximum fine imposable on such an individual offender is raised from ₹10 lakh to ₹50 lakh. 3. The period for which an errant service provider stands debarred from public examination work is extended from four years to six years. 4. For organised examination crimes, the minimum term of imprisonment is raised from five years to seven years. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Imprisonment for a person resorting to unfair means is raised to not less than five years, extendable up to ten years.
  2. The maximum fine imposable on such an individual offender is raised from ₹10 lakh to ₹50 lakh.
  3. The period for which an errant service provider stands debarred from public examination work is extended from four years to six years.
  4. For organised examination crimes, the minimum term of imprisonment is raised from five years to seven years.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q3. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, an offence is to be investigated by a police officer not below which one of the following ranks?

  • A. Sub-Inspector of Police, or an officer of equivalent rank in a metropolitan force
  • B. Deputy Superintendent of Police, or Assistant Commissioner of Police
  • C. Superintendent of Police, or Deputy Commissioner of Police
  • D. Inspector-General of Police, or Joint Commissioner of Police

Q4. Consider the following statements about State anti-cheating laws for examinations enacted before the central Act of 2024: 1. The maximum term of imprisonment under Andhra Pradesh's law of 1997 is higher than that under Uttar Pradesh's law of 1998. 2. Rajasthan enacted its law in 2022, whereas Gujarat's Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act was enacted in 2023. 3. Uttarakhand's 2023 law extends to school board examinations, while Gujarat's law is confined to State recruitment examinations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The maximum term of imprisonment under Andhra Pradesh's law of 1997 is higher than that under Uttar Pradesh's law of 1998.
  2. Rajasthan enacted its law in 2022, whereas Gujarat's Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act was enacted in 2023.
  3. Uttarakhand's 2023 law extends to school board examinations, while Gujarat's law is confined to State recruitment examinations.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Of the five States — Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand — in how many was an anti-cheating law for examinations enacted before the year 2000?

  • A. Only three of these States
  • B. Only two of these States
  • C. Only four of these States
  • D. All five of these States

Q6. A Bill introduced in either House of Parliament may be sent for detailed examination to a Department-related Standing Committee. Who refers a Bill to such a Committee?

  • A. The Business Advisory Committee of the House concerned
  • B. The Minister-in-charge, at the time of moving the Bill for introduction
  • C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, in respect of Bills referred by them
  • D. The Union Cabinet, acting through the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

Q7. In the legislative procedure of the Lok Sabha, the expression 'First Reading' of a Bill denotes which one of the following?

  • A. The general discussion on the principles of a Bill after a motion that it be taken into consideration is moved
  • B. The motion for leave to introduce a Bill, on the adoption of which the Bill stands introduced
  • C. The clause-by-clause consideration of a Bill as introduced, when amendments to clauses are moved
  • D. The motion that a Bill be passed, moved after all its clauses have been agreed to by the House

Q8. Six hours were allotted for discussion on the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, with an indication that more time could follow on the basis of consensus. This allotment was announced by which one of the following?

  • A. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
  • B. The Leader of the House in the Lok Sabha
  • C. The Minister of State who moved the Bill for introduction
  • D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 and the circumstances surrounding it: 1. The Union Cabinet approved the Bill on 24 July 2026, ahead of its introduction in Parliament. 2. Although the Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 27 July 2026, the House adjourned that day without taking it up for discussion. 3. The demands of the agitating students' outfit included the resignation of the Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Union Cabinet approved the Bill on 24 July 2026, ahead of its introduction in Parliament.
  2. Although the Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 27 July 2026, the House adjourned that day without taking it up for discussion.
  3. The demands of the agitating students' outfit included the resignation of the Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Consider the following statements about the 2024 examination controversies and the official response to them: 1. The UGC-NET of June 2024 was cancelled after inputs that its question paper had been circulated on the darknet, whereas the Supreme Court declined to cancel NEET-UG 2024 in its entirety. 2. The High-Level Committee of Experts headed by Dr K. Radhakrishnan was constituted by the Ministry of Education in June 2024. 3. That Committee recommended that the National Testing Agency be entrusted exclusively with all recruitment examinations of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The UGC-NET of June 2024 was cancelled after inputs that its question paper had been circulated on the darknet, whereas the Supreme Court declined to cancel NEET-UG 2024 in its entirety.
  2. The High-Level Committee of Experts headed by Dr K. Radhakrishnan was constituted by the Ministry of Education in June 2024.
  3. That Committee recommended that the National Testing Agency be entrusted exclusively with all recruitment examinations of the Central Government.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Consider the following statements about the High-Level Committee of Experts on examination reform set up in the wake of the 2024 controversies: 1. Its report was titled 'The Reformation of National Common Entrance Testing in India'. 2. The report was submitted in October 2024. 3. It contained 101 recommendations grouped into 46 major action points. 4. The Committee was headed by a former Chairman of the University Grants Commission. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Its report was titled 'The Reformation of National Common Entrance Testing in India'.
  2. The report was submitted in October 2024.
  3. It contained 101 recommendations grouped into 46 major action points.
  4. The Committee was headed by a former Chairman of the University Grants Commission.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 4 only