UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — SC directs Union Home Secretary to file affidavit on IPS postings in CAPFs
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment of 23 May 2025 on the Central Armed Police Forces and the subsequent proceedings arising from it:
1. The Court held that Group A executive cadre officers of the CAPFs constitute organised Group A services, and directed a time-bound cadre review to be completed within six months.
2. The Court directed the Centre to progressively reduce deputation of Indian Police Service officers in the CAPFs up to the rank of Director General over a period of five years.
3. The Union Government's petition seeking review of this judgment was subsequently rejected on the ground that no case for review was made out.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Court held that Group A executive cadre officers of the CAPFs constitute organised Group A services, and directed a time-bound cadre review to be completed within six months.
- The Court directed the Centre to progressively reduce deputation of Indian Police Service officers in the CAPFs up to the rank of Director General over a period of five years.
- The Union Government's petition seeking review of this judgment was subsequently rejected on the ground that no case for review was made out.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. As disclosed in the affidavit placed before the Supreme Court in the 2026 contempt proceedings, how many Indian Police Service officers had been appointed on deputation to the Central Armed Police Forces after the Court's May 2025 directions?
- A. 26 officers
- B. 46 officers
- C. 56 officers
- D. 66 officers
Q3. As presently listed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Central Armed Police Forces of India comprise how many forces?
- A. Five forces
- B. Six forces
- C. Seven forces
- D. Nine forces
Q4. Consider the following statements comparing the constituent Central Armed Police Forces:
1. The Assam Rifles, which traces its origin to the Cachar Levy of 1835, is the oldest of these forces, and while it is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs its operational control rests with the Indian Army.
2. The Sashastra Seema Bal was raised in 1963 as the Special Service Bureau under the Ministry of Home Affairs, whereas the Indo-Tibetan Border Police was raised in 1962 under the same ministry.
3. The Central Reserve Police Force, raised in 1939, predates the Border Security Force, which was raised in 1965.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Assam Rifles, which traces its origin to the Cachar Levy of 1835, is the oldest of these forces, and while it is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs its operational control rests with the Indian Army.
- The Sashastra Seema Bal was raised in 1963 as the Special Service Bureau under the Ministry of Home Affairs, whereas the Indo-Tibetan Border Police was raised in 1962 under the same ministry.
- The Central Reserve Police Force, raised in 1939, predates the Border Security Force, which was raised in 1965.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. The Indian Police Service (Cadre) Rules, 1954, which govern cadre allocation and deputation of IPS officers, were framed in exercise of powers conferred by which one of the following?
- A. Section 3 of the All India Services Act, 1951
- B. Section 4 of the All India Services Act, 1951
- C. Clause (2) of Article 312 of the Constitution of India
- D. Rule 3 of the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961
Q6. Under the Constitution, a resolution enabling Parliament to create a new All India Service must be supported in the Council of States by not less than what proportion of the members present and voting?
- A. One-half
- B. Two-thirds
- C. Three-fifths
- D. Three-fourths
Q7. The Bench hearing the 2026 contempt proceedings on IPS deputation in the CAPFs was presided over by the judge who had also been a member of the Bench that delivered the underlying May 2025 judgment. That judge is:
- A. Justice Abhay S. Oka
- B. Justice Ujjal Bhuyan
- C. Justice Atul S. Chandurkar
- D. Justice Surya Kant
Q8. According to the affidavit placed before the Supreme Court on the CAPF cadre review, the Ministry of Home Affairs' cadre-review proposals were concurred in by which body before being forwarded to the Department of Personnel and Training?
- A. The Department of Expenditure in the Ministry of Finance
- B. The Establishment Officer in the Department of Personnel and Training
- C. The Controller General of Accounts under the Ministry of Finance
- D. The Integrated Finance Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs
Q9. Of the roughly 3,000 serving and former CAPF officers who moved the Supreme Court against the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Act, 2026, the largest single contingent — about half the petitioners — belonged to which force?
- A. Central Reserve Police Force
- B. Border Security Force
- C. Central Industrial Security Force
- D. Indo-Tibetan Border Police
Q10. Which one of the following statements correctly reflects the constitutional position in India when a legislature enacts a law in response to an adverse judicial decision?
- A. Parliament, being sovereign in its legislative field, may by law directly declare a judgment of the Supreme Court to be void and of no effect
- B. Once the Supreme Court has declared the law on a question, Article 141 imposes an absolute bar on any legislation touching that question
- C. A law that is inconsistent with a judicial declaration takes effect only if it is ratified by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures
- D. The legislature cannot directly set aside a judgment, but may, within its competence, alter the legal basis on which the judgment rested
Q11. With reference to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, consider the following statements:
1. Wilful disobedience of a judgment, decree, direction or order of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court, amounts to civil contempt.
2. A person publishing a fair and accurate report of a judicial proceeding, or of any stage of it, is not guilty of contempt of court.
3. Contempt of court is punishable with simple imprisonment which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
4. Where a motion for criminal contempt before the Supreme Court is made by a person other than a law officer, the consent in writing of the Chief Justice of India is required.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- Wilful disobedience of a judgment, decree, direction or order of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court, amounts to civil contempt.
- A person publishing a fair and accurate report of a judicial proceeding, or of any stage of it, is not guilty of contempt of court.
- Contempt of court is punishable with simple imprisonment which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to five thousand rupees, or with both.
- Where a motion for criminal contempt before the Supreme Court is made by a person other than a law officer, the consent in writing of the Chief Justice of India is required.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4