UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — How should RUPPs be regulated?
Q1. With reference to the registration of a political party with the Election Commission of India under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, consider the following statements:
1. The application for registration has to be submitted within thirty days following the date of formation of the party.
2. The applicant association is required to publish the proposed name of the party in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers.
3. The application is to be filed with the Chief Electoral Officer of the State concerned, who forwards it to the Commission with his recommendations.
4. Objections to the proposed registration may be submitted to the Commission within thirty days from the date of such publication.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- The application for registration has to be submitted within thirty days following the date of formation of the party.
- The applicant association is required to publish the proposed name of the party in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers.
- The application is to be filed with the Chief Electoral Officer of the State concerned, who forwards it to the Commission with his recommendations.
- Objections to the proposed registration may be submitted to the Commission within thirty days from the date of such publication.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 only
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 2 only
Q2. Consider the following entitlements available to a political party that is registered with the Election Commission of India but has not been recognised as a State or National party:
1. Allotment of a common free symbol to its candidates at elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. Exclusive allotment of a reserved symbol to its candidates throughout the territory of India.
3. Exemption of its income under the income-tax law, which is forfeited for a financial year if the contribution report under Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is not submitted.
4. Nomination of a maximum of forty star campaigners whose travel expenditure is not charged to the election expenditure account of individual candidates.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Allotment of a common free symbol to its candidates at elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
- Exclusive allotment of a reserved symbol to its candidates throughout the territory of India.
- Exemption of its income under the income-tax law, which is forfeited for a financial year if the contribution report under Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is not submitted.
- Nomination of a maximum of forty star campaigners whose travel expenditure is not charged to the election expenditure account of individual candidates.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 1, 2 and 4
- C. 2 and 3
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q3. Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, which one of the following is the entitlement that flows solely from recognition as a National party, and from no lower category of registered party?
- A. Exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to its candidates only in the State in which it stands recognised
- B. Allotment of a common free symbol to all its candidates at general elections held in any State
- C. Nomination of up to twenty leaders as star campaigners at a general election to the House of the People
- D. Exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to its candidates throughout the territory of India
Q4. Consider the following statements comparing the conditions attached to the income-tax exemption enjoyed by a political party with the disclosure obligations imposed on it:
1. The voluntary contributions received by a political party are entirely exempt from income tax irrespective of whether the treasurer submits the report required under Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. Unlike donations received in cash, which are subject to a per-person ceiling of two thousand rupees, contributions received through account payee cheque, bank draft or prescribed electronic modes carry no such per-donation ceiling under the exemption provision.
3. A political party is required to keep a record of the name and address of every person contributing more than twenty thousand rupees in a financial year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The voluntary contributions received by a political party are entirely exempt from income tax irrespective of whether the treasurer submits the report required under Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
- Unlike donations received in cash, which are subject to a per-person ceiling of two thousand rupees, contributions received through account payee cheque, bank draft or prescribed electronic modes carry no such per-donation ceiling under the exemption provision.
- A political party is required to keep a record of the name and address of every person contributing more than twenty thousand rupees in a financial year.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. Consider the following pairings of an instrument or authority with its function in the regulation of political finance in India:
1. Form 24A under Rule 85B of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 — the form in which a party's annual report of contributions is furnished.
2. Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 — the provision obliging a party to report contributions received above the prescribed threshold.
3. The Central Board of Direct Taxes — the authority that in December 2025 issued SMS and email advisories to taxpayers suspected of claiming bogus deductions for donations routed to registered unrecognised political parties.
4. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India — the authority that strikes a registered party off the list for not having contested any election for six continuous years.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Form 24A under Rule 85B of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 — the form in which a party's annual report of contributions is furnished.
- Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 — the provision obliging a party to report contributions received above the prescribed threshold.
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes — the authority that in December 2025 issued SMS and email advisories to taxpayers suspected of claiming bogus deductions for donations routed to registered unrecognised political parties.
- The Comptroller and Auditor General of India — the authority that strikes a registered party off the list for not having contested any election for six continuous years.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1 and 4
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the finances of registered unrecognised political parties as brought out in analyses reported in 2025:
1. The ten highest-earning registered unrecognised parties together declared a total income of about ₹1,582 crore for the financial year concerned, a rise of about 223 per cent over the preceding year.
2. Parties based in Gujarat accounted for more than seventy per cent of the total income of these ten highest-earning parties.
3. Nearly the whole of this declared income — about 99.99 per cent — was accounted for by donations.
4. Audit and contribution reports were unavailable in the public domain for about twenty-six per cent of all registered unrecognised parties for that year.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- The ten highest-earning registered unrecognised parties together declared a total income of about ₹1,582 crore for the financial year concerned, a rise of about 223 per cent over the preceding year.
- Parties based in Gujarat accounted for more than seventy per cent of the total income of these ten highest-earning parties.
- Nearly the whole of this declared income — about 99.99 per cent — was accounted for by donations.
- Audit and contribution reports were unavailable in the public domain for about twenty-six per cent of all registered unrecognised parties for that year.
- A. 2 only
- B. 3 and 4
- C. 4 only
- D. 1 and 3
Q7. The ten Gujarat-based registered unrecognised parties reported in 2025 to have received about ₹4,300 crore in donations between 2019-20 and 2023-24 fielded how many candidates in all, taken together across the 2019 and 2024 Lok Sabha elections and the 2022 Gujarat Assembly election?
Q8. The first round of the Election Commission of India's 2025 delisting exercise against registered unrecognised political parties concluded with which one of the following outcomes?
- A. 334 of the 345 parties taken up were delisted on 9 August 2025, reducing the number of listed parties from 2,854 to 2,520
- B. 345 of the 476 parties taken up were delisted on 9 August 2025, reducing the number of listed parties from 2,854 to 2,509
- C. 474 of the 476 parties taken up were delisted on 18 September 2025, reducing the number of listed parties from 2,520 to 2,046
- D. 253 of the 345 parties taken up were declared inactive on 9 August 2025 and barred from the benefits of the Election Symbols Order, 1968
Q9. The verification enquiries, show-cause notices and personal hearings that preceded the 2025 delisting of registered unrecognised political parties were carried out by which one of the following?
- A. The District Election Officers, functioning under the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice
- B. The Directorate of Income Tax (Investigation) functioning under the Central Board of Direct Taxes
- C. The Chief Electoral Officers of the States and Union Territories, acting on the direction of the Commission
- D. The Regional Commissioners appointed under clause (4) of Article 324 of the Constitution
Q10. A registered unrecognised political party may nominate at most how many leaders as star campaigners, whose travel expenditure is then not charged to the election expenditure account of its individual candidates?
Q11. Under the guidelines governing registration of political parties, the Election Commission of India takes a registered party off its list where the party has failed to contest any election for a continuous period of how many years?
- A. Three years
- B. Five years
- C. Six years
- D. Ten years