UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — HC bars RTI disclosure of husband’s income amid matrimonial row

Q1. Section 8(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 enumerates specific categories of information exempted from disclosure in clauses running from (a) onwards. How many such exemption clauses does Section 8(1) contain?

  • A. 8
  • B. 9
  • C. 10
  • D. 11

Q2. Under which specific provision of the Right to Information Act, 2005 is 'personal information' — which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or whose disclosure would cause an unwarranted invasion of privacy — exempted from disclosure unless a larger public interest is served?

  • A. Section 8(1)(a)
  • B. Section 8(1)(d)
  • C. Section 8(1)(e)
  • D. Section 8(1)(j)

Q3. With reference to the Delhi High Court's April 28, 2026 ruling on disclosure of a husband's income tax details under the RTI Act, consider the following statements: 1. The information sought was the husband's income tax return details from Financial Year 2007-08 onwards. 2. The Court held that income tax returns constitute 'personal information' under the RTI Act. 3. The Court set aside a direction of the Central Information Commission. 4. The Court held that a matrimonial dispute meets the threshold of 'larger public interest' overriding the exemption. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly stated?

  1. The information sought was the husband's income tax return details from Financial Year 2007-08 onwards.
  2. The Court held that income tax returns constitute 'personal information' under the RTI Act.
  3. The Court set aside a direction of the Central Information Commission.
  4. The Court held that a matrimonial dispute meets the threshold of 'larger public interest' overriding the exemption.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q4. The Delhi High Court judgment of April 28, 2026 barring RTI disclosure of a husband's income tax details was delivered by a bench of how many judges?

  • A. One (Single Judge)
  • B. Two (Division Bench)
  • C. Three (Full Bench)
  • D. Five (Constitution Bench)

Q5. In Rajnesh v. Neha (2021), while prescribing a standardized Affidavit of Disclosure of Assets and Liabilities, the Supreme Court designed three separate formats — for urban parties, rural parties, and a distinct format prescribed specifically for which single State?

  • A. Nagaland
  • B. Meghalaya
  • C. Mizoram
  • D. Sikkim

Q6. Under the Rajnesh v. Neha (2021) guidelines of the Supreme Court, the filing of an Affidavit of Disclosure of Assets and Liabilities is mandatory in which maintenance proceedings?

  • A. Only in proceedings under Section 125 CrPC / Section 144 BNSS
  • B. Only in fresh proceedings instituted after the date of the judgment
  • C. In all maintenance proceedings, including pending proceedings, across the different statutes
  • D. Only in proceedings under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

Q7. Which department/ministry of the Union Government is the nodal authority for administering the Right to Information Act, 2005?

  • A. Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • B. Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice
  • C. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

Q8. As per the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission is constituted of the Chief Information Commissioner and —

  • A. not more than ten Information Commissioners
  • B. exactly ten Information Commissioners
  • C. not more than five Information Commissioners
  • D. exactly fifteen Information Commissioners

Q9. In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), the nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court held that the right to privacy is protected principally as an intrinsic part of which fundamental right?

  • A. Right to equality under Article 14
  • B. Freedoms under Article 19
  • C. Right to life and personal liberty under Article 21
  • D. Right to constitutional remedies under Article 32

Q10. The three-fold test laid down in the Puttaswamy (2017) judgment for a valid State encroachment upon the right to privacy is best described as requiring —

  • A. legality, a legitimate State aim (necessity), and proportionality
  • B. legality, reasonableness, and demonstrable public order
  • C. equality, liberty, and fraternity
  • D. necessity, public morality, and procedural due process

Q11. Under which provision can a Hindu spouse claim interim maintenance (maintenance pendente lite) and expenses of litigation during the pendency of matrimonial proceedings?

  • A. Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  • B. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  • C. Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
  • D. Section 36 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954

Q12. According to PRS analysis of RTI exemption usage during 2005-2010, the three most frequently invoked exemptions — Sections 8(1)(j), 8(1)(d) and 8(1)(e) — together accounted for approximately what share of all exemptions invoked?

  • A. About one-fourth
  • B. About one-half
  • C. About three-fourths
  • D. About nine-tenths