UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Man hurls papers at SC Bench after incoherent address
Q1. The Supreme Court has been described as deriving its contempt power from more than one constitutional provision. Which one of the following is regarded as the primary and unrestricted source of the Supreme Court's power to punish for contempt of itself?
- A. Article 129
- B. Article 142
- C. Article 141
- D. Article 145
Q2. How many Articles in the Constitution of India expressly declare a court to be a 'court of record' with the power to punish for contempt of itself?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Q3. Under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, the expression 'civil contempt' is most precisely defined as which one of the following?
- A. Wilful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other process of a court, or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court
- B. Any publication or act that scandalises or tends to lower the authority of a court
- C. Any act that prejudices or interferes with the due course of a pending judicial proceeding
- D. Any act that obstructs the administration of justice in any manner
Q4. Consider the following, each claimed to be a recognised defence or exception under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971:
1. Innocent publication where the person had no reasonable grounds to believe that a proceeding was pending.
2. Fair criticism of a judicial act that has been finally heard and decided.
3. Truth pleaded bona fide in the public interest.
4. Wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as a defence or exception?
- Innocent publication where the person had no reasonable grounds to believe that a proceeding was pending.
- Fair criticism of a judicial act that has been finally heard and decided.
- Truth pleaded bona fide in the public interest.
- Wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 3 only
- D. 4 only
Q5. Under the Rules to Regulate Proceedings for Contempt of the Supreme Court, 1975, the written consent of which one of the following is the primary requirement before a petition by a private person for criminal contempt can be entertained by the Court?
- A. The Attorney-General for India
- B. The Union Law Secretary
- C. The Secretary-General of the Supreme Court
- D. The Registrar-General of the Supreme Court
Q6. The Rules to Regulate Proceedings for Contempt of the Supreme Court, 1975 were framed by which one of the following authorities?
- A. The Supreme Court of India
- B. The Ministry of Law and Justice, exclusively
- C. The Parliament of India
- D. The President of India
Q7. In the July 2026 Supreme Court proceedings, the litigant Prabal Pratap appeared as a 'party-in-person'. In Indian judicial practice, the term 'party-in-person' most precisely means which one of the following?
- A. A litigant who represents his own case before the court without engaging an advocate
- B. An advocate appointed and paid by the court to assist an indigent litigant
- C. A senior advocate designated as such by the Chief Justice to argue the matter
- D. A neutral lawyer appointed by the court to assist it as amicus curiae
Q8. With reference to the July 2026 incident in which a party-in-person hurled papers at a Supreme Court Bench, consider the following statements:
1. The Bench of Justices K.V. Viswanathan and Alok Aradhe declined to initiate contempt proceedings against the petitioner.
2. Unlike a private party, the Court may take up criminal contempt on its own motion without the consent of the Attorney-General.
3. The Special Leave Petition was allowed and the matter was remanded to the Allahabad High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Bench of Justices K.V. Viswanathan and Alok Aradhe declined to initiate contempt proceedings against the petitioner.
- Unlike a private party, the Court may take up criminal contempt on its own motion without the consent of the Attorney-General.
- The Special Leave Petition was allowed and the matter was remanded to the Allahabad High Court.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q9. With reference to the Supreme Court's jurisdiction under Article 136 (special leave to appeal), consider the following statements:
1. Special leave may be granted against the judgment of any court or tribunal in India, except those constituted under laws relating to the Armed Forces.
2. A party can claim special leave to appeal under Article 136 as a matter of right.
3. While disposing of the special-leave stage, the Court exercises a discretionary power and is not, at that stage, exercising its appellate jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Special leave may be granted against the judgment of any court or tribunal in India, except those constituted under laws relating to the Armed Forces.
- A party can claim special leave to appeal under Article 136 as a matter of right.
- While disposing of the special-leave stage, the Court exercises a discretionary power and is not, at that stage, exercising its appellate jurisdiction.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q10. The Supreme Court's power to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order of any court or tribunal in India is conferred by which one of the following Articles of the Constitution?
- A. Article 136
- B. Article 132
- C. Article 133
- D. Article 134
Q11. Under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, the procedure for dealing with criminal contempt committed 'in the face of' the Supreme Court or a High Court — such as an act disrupting proceedings in open court — is specifically provided under which Section?
- A. Section 14
- B. Section 12
- C. Section 15
- D. Section 19
Q12. The expression 'court of record', as used in Article 215 in relation to the High Courts, most precisely denotes a court:
- A. whose acts and judicial proceedings are enrolled for perpetual memory and evidentiary value, and which has the power to punish for contempt of itself
- B. whose judgments, once delivered, can be reviewed only by the Supreme Court and by no other authority
- C. whose records are maintained solely for administrative and financial audit by the Comptroller and Auditor-General
- D. whose proceedings are conducted entirely in writing, without any oral hearing of the parties