UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — HC rejects plea for NIA probe into July 20 march

Q1. Under Section 6 of the NIA Act, 2008, consider the following as steps or entities correctly involved in referring a scheduled offence to the National Investigation Agency: 1. On receiving a report of a scheduled offence under Section 154 CrPC, the officer in charge of the police station forwards it to the State Government. 2. The State Government forwards the report to the Central Government for a decision. 3. The Central Government determines whether the offence is a Scheduled Offence to be investigated by the Agency. 4. A State Government may itself directly direct the NIA to take up the investigation without any reference to the Central Government. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. On receiving a report of a scheduled offence under Section 154 CrPC, the officer in charge of the police station forwards it to the State Government.
  2. The State Government forwards the report to the Central Government for a decision.
  3. The Central Government determines whether the offence is a Scheduled Offence to be investigated by the Agency.
  4. A State Government may itself directly direct the NIA to take up the investigation without any reference to the Central Government.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q2. Under Section 6 of the NIA Act, 2008, within how many days of receiving the report must the Central Government determine whether the offence is a Scheduled Offence to be investigated by the NIA?

  • A. 7 days
  • B. 15 days
  • C. 30 days
  • D. 45 days

Q3. In refusing the plea, the Delhi High Court held that invoking the NIA is the Central Government's 'prerogative.' In this context, the term is best understood to mean:

  • A. a concurrent power shared equally between the High Court and the Central Government
  • B. a discretionary power exercisable solely by the executive, in place of which the court will not substitute its own decision
  • C. a statutory duty the Central Government is bound to perform the moment a PIL is filed
  • D. a power vesting in the State Government subject to later central ratification

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court's handling of the PILs arising from the July 20, 2026 march: 1. The Bench refused to entertain the plea seeking an NIA probe into the march, whereas it deferred the separate plea challenging alleged surveillance/videography of protesters. 2. The petitioner who sought the NIA probe withdrew that PIL after the court's observation on the Section 6 trigger. 3. Both PILs were heard by a single-judge Bench of Justice Tejas Karia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Bench refused to entertain the plea seeking an NIA probe into the march, whereas it deferred the separate plea challenging alleged surveillance/videography of protesters.
  2. The petitioner who sought the NIA probe withdrew that PIL after the court's observation on the Section 6 trigger.
  3. Both PILs were heard by a single-judge Bench of Justice Tejas Karia.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. The National Investigation Agency functions as a central agency under the administrative control of which one of the following?

  • A. Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • C. Ministry of Defence
  • D. Cabinet Secretariat

Q6. Consider the following statements comparing the original NIA Act, 2008 with the NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019: 1. The NIA came into existence in 2008 in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks. 2. The 2019 amendment empowered NIA officers to investigate scheduled offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties. 3. The 2019 amendment removed human trafficking and cyber terrorism from the Schedule of offences the NIA can investigate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The NIA came into existence in 2008 in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.
  2. The 2019 amendment empowered NIA officers to investigate scheduled offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties.
  3. The 2019 amendment removed human trafficking and cyber terrorism from the Schedule of offences the NIA can investigate.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements comparing the traditional rule of standing with the relaxed rule underlying Public Interest Litigation: 1. Under the traditional rule of locus standi, only a person whose own legal right was affected could approach the court. 2. The rule was relaxed in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), permitting any bona fide member of the public to move the court on behalf of those unable to approach it. 3. The relaxation of locus standi permitting PILs was first laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under the traditional rule of locus standi, only a person whose own legal right was affected could approach the court.
  2. The rule was relaxed in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), permitting any bona fide member of the public to move the court on behalf of those unable to approach it.
  3. The relaxation of locus standi permitting PILs was first laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Public Interest Litigations such as the present one before the Delhi High Court are ordinarily entertained under which one of the following?

  • A. The exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131 alone
  • B. The writ jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution
  • C. The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143 in all such cases
  • D. The supervisory jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 227 exclusively

Q9. The NEET-UG examination, whose alleged 2026 paper leak triggered the protests, is conducted by which one of the following as the nodal agency?

  • A. University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B. National Medical Commission (NMC)
  • C. National Testing Agency (NTA)
  • D. Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

Q10. Regarding the protests arising from the alleged NEET-UG 2026 paper leak, consider the following: 1. The protests were based at Jantar Mantar, New Delhi. 2. The movement was later spearheaded by the 'Cockroach Janta Party' (CJP). 3. Protesters demanded the resignation of the Union Education Minister, Dharmendra Pradhan. 4. The nationwide strike on July 24, 2026 protesting Delhi Police action was called by the Akhil Bharat Hindu Mahasabha. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The protests were based at Jantar Mantar, New Delhi.
  2. The movement was later spearheaded by the 'Cockroach Janta Party' (CJP).
  3. Protesters demanded the resignation of the Union Education Minister, Dharmendra Pradhan.
  4. The nationwide strike on July 24, 2026 protesting Delhi Police action was called by the Akhil Bharat Hindu Mahasabha.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q11. The power to prohibit an assembly or march in a locality in urgent cases of apprehended danger to public order is ordinarily exercised by which one of the following?

  • A. The Central Government alone under Article 19(3) in every case
  • B. An Executive Magistrate under Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
  • C. The National Investigation Agency under the NIA Act in all public-order matters
  • D. The High Court exclusively through its writ jurisdiction

Q12. The deferred PIL challenging alleged surveillance/videography of protesters draws on the right to privacy, which was affirmed as a fundamental right under Article 21 by the Supreme Court in which one of the following?

  • A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
  • B. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954)
  • C. K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017)
  • D. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)