UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — SC quashes case against Samay Raina and others

Q1. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India is the primary source of the Supreme Court's plenary power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in a cause or matter pending before it?

  • A. Article 136, dealing with the discretionary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
  • B. Article 137, dealing with the powers of the Supreme Court in a pending matter
  • C. Article 141, dealing with the authority of the Supreme Court over all courts
  • D. Article 142, dealing with the enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court

Q2. With reference to the legal provisions under which criminal proceedings may be terminated before trial in India, consider the following: 1. Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 — saving of the inherent powers of the High Court. 2. Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 — the predecessor provision saving the inherent powers of the High Court. 3. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 — introduced in Parliament in 2023 to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. 4. Article 136 of the Constitution — empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice in a pending matter. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 — saving of the inherent powers of the High Court.
  2. Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 — the predecessor provision saving the inherent powers of the High Court.
  3. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 — introduced in Parliament in 2023 to replace the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
  4. Article 136 of the Constitution — empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice in a pending matter.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q3. With reference to the Supreme Court proceedings arising out of remarks made on persons with disabilities on the show India's Got Latent, consider the following statements: 1. In the round of proceedings preceding the final order, the Court imposed a monetary cost of ₹3 lakh on the comedians for violating their undertakings, whereas in the final order it quashed the FIRs on the ground of compliance. 2. The final order in August 2026 was passed by a Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana. 3. While quashing the FIRs, the Court simultaneously disposed of the entire petition, leaving no aspect of the matter pending before it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. In the round of proceedings preceding the final order, the Court imposed a monetary cost of ₹3 lakh on the comedians for violating their undertakings, whereas in the final order it quashed the FIRs on the ground of compliance.
  2. The final order in August 2026 was passed by a Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant, with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana.
  3. While quashing the FIRs, the Court simultaneously disposed of the entire petition, leaving no aspect of the matter pending before it.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. The proceedings in the Supreme Court concerning insensitive remarks about persons with disabilities on the show India's Got Latent were initiated on a plea moved by which one of the following?

  • A. The Rehabilitation Council of India, the statutory body regulating rehabilitation professionals
  • B. The National Association for the Blind, India, a voluntary organisation for the visually impaired
  • C. The Cure SMA India Foundation, a non-governmental organisation working on Spinal Muscular Atrophy
  • D. The National Trust for the Welfare of Persons with Autism and Multiple Disabilities

Q5. With reference to the India's Got Latent controversy of February 2025, consider the following: 1. Ranveer Allahbadia — the podcaster whose remark on the show triggered the nationwide row. 2. Samay Raina — the host of the show on which the remark was made. 3. The Central Bureau of Investigation — the agency that summoned 42 persons associated with the show, including artists, producers and influencers. 4. Jaipur — one of the cities in which an FIR was registered over the remarks. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Ranveer Allahbadia — the podcaster whose remark on the show triggered the nationwide row.
  2. Samay Raina — the host of the show on which the remark was made.
  3. The Central Bureau of Investigation — the agency that summoned 42 persons associated with the show, including artists, producers and influencers.
  4. Jaipur — one of the cities in which an FIR was registered over the remarks.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q6. In February 2025, what was the first relief granted by the Supreme Court to Ranveer Allahbadia in the matter of the FIRs arising from his remarks on the show?

  • A. Interim protection from arrest, coupled with a direction to join the investigation
  • B. Quashing of the FIRs registered against him in the States of Assam and Maharashtra
  • C. Transfer of all the FIRs registered across States to a single court in Mumbai
  • D. A stay on the investigation being conducted by the Maharashtra Cyber Department

Q7. With reference to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 as compared with the earlier law it succeeded, consider the following statements: 1. It supplements the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995, which continues to remain in force alongside it. 2. It raised the number of recognised types of disabilities from seven to twenty-one, with power to the Central Government to add more. 3. It increased reservation in vacancies in government establishments for persons with benchmark disabilities from three per cent to four per cent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It supplements the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995, which continues to remain in force alongside it.
  2. It raised the number of recognised types of disabilities from seven to twenty-one, with power to the Central Government to add more.
  3. It increased reservation in vacancies in government establishments for persons with benchmark disabilities from three per cent to four per cent.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, which one of the following functions as the apex authority at the Union level, strengthened by two Commissioners and an advisory committee of experts drawn from the field of disability?

  • A. The National Trust for the Welfare of Persons with Autism and Multiple Disabilities
  • B. The Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities appointed by the Central Government
  • C. The State Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities in each State and Union Territory
  • D. The Special Court designated in every district to try violations of the rights of PwDs

Q9. How many distinct grounds of restriction are expressly enumerated in Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India, on which the State may impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression?

  • A. Six
  • B. Seven
  • C. Eight
  • D. Nine

Q10. With reference to Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India, consider the following grounds: 1. Decency or morality 2. Protection of the interests of the general public 3. Friendly relations with foreign States 4. Incitement to an offence Which of the above is/are correctly identified as grounds expressly available for imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression?

  1. Decency or morality
  2. Protection of the interests of the general public
  3. Friendly relations with foreign States
  4. Incitement to an offence
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q11. Apart from the Supreme Court's constitutional powers, the quashing of a first information report before any trial begins — as distinct from a discharge or an acquittal — is operationalised through the inherent powers saved in favour of which one of the following?

  • A. The High Court, under the provision of the BNSS, 2023 saving its inherent powers
  • B. The Court of Session, under its revisional jurisdiction over subordinate courts
  • C. The Judicial Magistrate of the first class, while taking cognizance of an offence
  • D. The State Police Complaints Authority, while reviewing the conduct of investigation

Q12. Under the three-tier structure prescribed by the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, the second-tier self-regulatory body of publishers is required to be headed by which one of the following?

  • A. An officer of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting not below the rank of Joint Secretary
  • B. The Grievance Redressal Officer based in India appointed by the publisher concerned
  • C. A serving judge of a High Court nominated by the Chief Justice of that High Court
  • D. A retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court, or an independent eminent person