UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — SC to deliver verdict today on petitions challenging Bihar SIR

Q1. With reference to the Supreme Court's proceedings on the petitions challenging the Bihar Special Intensive Revision (SIR), consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Court reserved its judgment in the matter in January 2026 and pronounced the verdict on 27 May 2026.
  2. The Bench that decided the case comprised the Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi.
  3. The Court struck down the SIR exercise as being beyond the Election Commission of India's mandate under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the Supreme Court's 27 May 2026 verdict on the Bihar SIR, consider the following characterisations of the ruling. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Court held the SIR exercise to be lawful.
  2. The Court held the SIR exercise to be proportionate.
  3. The Court held the SIR exercise to be procedurally sound.
  4. The Court held that the Election Commission could conclusively determine the citizenship of electors through the SIR.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q3. Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control vested in the Election Commission of India extend to the following. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified?

  1. Elections to Parliament
  2. Elections to the State Legislatures
  3. Election to the office of the President of India
  4. Elections to municipalities and panchayats
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q4. Under Article 324 of the Constitution, which one of the following office-holders can be removed from office only in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court?

  • A. The Chief Election Commissioner
  • B. Any Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner
  • C. A Regional Commissioner
  • D. The Chief Electoral Officer of a State

Q5. The power of the Election Commission of India to direct, at any time and for reasons to be recorded in writing, a special revision of the electoral roll of a constituency is derived primarily from which one of the following provisions?

  • A. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • B. Section 21(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • C. Section 22 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • D. Section 23 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950

Q6. As per Section 21(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, an electoral roll may be revised in the following ways. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified?

  1. Intensively
  2. Summarily
  3. Partly intensively and partly summarily
  4. Electronically by automatic deletion without any house-to-house verification
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 2 only

Q7. Approximately how many names were deleted (net) from the Bihar electoral roll between the initial roll of 24 June 2025 and the final roll published on 30 September 2025?

  • A. About 47 lakh
  • B. About 27 lakh
  • C. About 7 lakh
  • D. About 89 lakh

Q8. With reference to the timeline and figures of the Bihar Special Intensive Revision (2025), consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The SIR in Bihar began on 24 June 2025.
  2. The qualifying date fixed for the SIR was 1 July 2025.
  3. The initial electoral roll as on 24 June 2025 carried about 7.89 crore electors.
  4. The final electoral roll published on 30 September 2025 carried about 8.42 crore electors.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 3 and 4
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to the role of Aadhaar in the Bihar SIR and under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Following a Supreme Court direction, Aadhaar was added as the 12th document accepted as proof of identity in the Bihar SIR.
  2. Under Section 9 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016, an Aadhaar number is proof of identity but is not, by itself, evidence of citizenship or domicile.
  3. The Supreme Court directed that Aadhaar be accepted in the Bihar SIR as conclusive proof of the holder's Indian citizenship.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. The petitions challenging the constitutionality of the Bihar Special Intensive Revision before the Supreme Court were led by which one of the following organisations?

  • A. Association for Democratic Reforms
  • B. People's Union for Civil Liberties
  • C. Common Cause
  • D. Centre for Policy Research

Q11. Comparing the 2025 Bihar Special Intensive Revision with the earlier intensive revision in the State, consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The last intensive revision of Bihar's electoral roll prior to 2025 was conducted in 2003.
  2. The qualifying date fixed for that earlier intensive revision was 1 July 2003.
  3. Because the 2003 rolls were available, nearly 60% of Bihar's 2025 electorate did not have to submit documents afresh in the 2025 SIR.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q12. The second phase (Phase-2) of the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, with the final voter list scheduled for 7 February 2026, covers the following States/Union Territories. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as covered under Phase-2?

  1. West Bengal
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Assam
  4. Kerala
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4