UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Five crore Indians wait when the courts take a break
Q1. Under the proviso to Section 479(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an undertrial prisoner who qualifies as a 'first-time offender' becomes entitled to release on bond after a shorter period of detention. Which one of the following correctly describes a 'first-time offender' for this purpose?
- A. A person who has never been convicted of any offence in the past
- B. A person against whom a first information report is being registered for the first time
- C. A person who is being arrested for the first time in his life, irrespective of past convictions
- D. A person who is facing trial in only one case at present, regardless of earlier convictions
Q2. With reference to Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, consider the following statements:
1. An undertrial who is not a first-time offender is to be released on bail on having undergone detention up to one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the alleged offence.
2. A first-time offender is to be released on bond on having undergone detention up to one-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the alleged offence.
3. The section applies to offences punishable with imprisonment for life.
4. It is the duty of the Superintendent of Jail to make an application to the Court for release once the prescribed period of detention is complete.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- An undertrial who is not a first-time offender is to be released on bail on having undergone detention up to one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the alleged offence.
- A first-time offender is to be released on bond on having undergone detention up to one-third of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for the alleged offence.
- The section applies to offences punishable with imprisonment for life.
- It is the duty of the Superintendent of Jail to make an application to the Court for release once the prescribed period of detention is complete.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 3 only
- C. 2 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Q3. As per the Department of Justice's year-end review of 2025, which one of the following tiers of the judiciary accounted for the largest share of the total pending cases in India as on 31 December 2025?
- A. The Supreme Court of India
- B. The High Courts
- C. The District and subordinate courts
- D. The Fast Track Special Courts
Q4. According to the Department of Justice, how many cases were pending in the Supreme Court of India as on 31 December 2025?
- A. About 64,900 cases
- B. About 92,100 cases
- C. About 1,42,000 cases
- D. About 2,15,000 cases
Q5. Under the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, the period of the summer vacation of the Supreme Court of India shall not exceed how many weeks?
- A. Five weeks
- B. Six weeks
- C. Seven weeks
- D. Ten weeks
Q6. Consider the following statements comparing the regulation of vacations and working days across different tiers of the Indian judiciary:
1. Under the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, the total period of vacation and holidays for the Supreme Court shall not exceed one hundred and three days, excluding Sundays not falling in the vacation and court holidays.
2. The High Courts in the country normally have 210 working days in a year.
3. The number of working days of the District and subordinate courts is fixed by the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Under the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, the total period of vacation and holidays for the Supreme Court shall not exceed one hundred and three days, excluding Sundays not falling in the vacation and court holidays.
- The High Courts in the country normally have 210 working days in a year.
- The number of working days of the District and subordinate courts is fixed by the Central Government.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q7. With reference to the constitutional framework surrounding speedy justice in India, consider the following:
1. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) — the Supreme Court held that the right to a speedy trial is implicit in the right guaranteed by Article 21.
2. Article 39A — a Directive Principle directing the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid.
3. Article 145 — empowers the Supreme Court to make rules regulating its practice and procedure, including its sittings and vacations.
4. Article 21 — a right conferred exclusively upon citizens of India.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) — the Supreme Court held that the right to a speedy trial is implicit in the right guaranteed by Article 21.
- Article 39A — a Directive Principle directing the State to secure equal justice and free legal aid.
- Article 145 — empowers the Supreme Court to make rules regulating its practice and procedure, including its sittings and vacations.
- Article 21 — a right conferred exclusively upon citizens of India.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution and the jurisprudence on speedy trial:
1. Article 21 protects the life and personal liberty of every person, including non-citizens.
2. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) arose as a public interest litigation concerning undertrial prisoners languishing in the jails of Bihar.
3. Article 21 is located in Part IV of the Constitution, among the Directive Principles of State Policy.
4. The right of an indigent accused to free legal aid has been read by the Supreme Court into Article 21.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- Article 21 protects the life and personal liberty of every person, including non-citizens.
- Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) arose as a public interest litigation concerning undertrial prisoners languishing in the jails of Bihar.
- Article 21 is located in Part IV of the Constitution, among the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- The right of an indigent accused to free legal aid has been read by the Supreme Court into Article 21.
- A. 3 only
- B. 1 and 3
- C. 2 and 4
- D. 1 only
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the strength of judges in India:
1. The Law Commission of India, in its 120th Report, recommended raising the number of judges per one million population from 10.5 to 50.
2. In 2026, the Union Cabinet approved an increase in the judge strength of the Supreme Court from 33 to 37, excluding the Chief Justice of India, by amending the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
3. The Law Commission, in its later work, affirmed the judge-population ratio as the most scientific criterion for determining judge strength and rejected the 'Rate of Disposal' method.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Law Commission of India, in its 120th Report, recommended raising the number of judges per one million population from 10.5 to 50.
- In 2026, the Union Cabinet approved an increase in the judge strength of the Supreme Court from 33 to 37, excluding the Chief Justice of India, by amending the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
- The Law Commission, in its later work, affirmed the judge-population ratio as the most scientific criterion for determining judge strength and rejected the 'Rate of Disposal' method.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q10. Which one of the following is the nodal agency that operationalises the National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms and processes the appointment of Judges to the Supreme Court and the High Courts?
- A. The Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice
- B. The Legislative Department, Ministry of Law and Justice
- C. The Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice
- D. The Judicial Division, Ministry of Home Affairs
Q11. The All India Committee on Jail Reforms (1980-83), whose recommendations continue to inform prison and undertrial reform in India, was chaired by which one of the following?
- A. Justice A. N. Mulla
- B. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
- C. Justice Amitava Roy
- D. Justice J. S. Verma
Q12. Consider the following statements about mechanisms for expediting justice delivery in India:
1. The scheme for Fast Track Special Courts is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented since October 2019 for the expeditious trial of cases of rape and offences under the POCSO Act.
2. The Central Share of the Fast Track Special Courts scheme is met from the Nirbhaya Fund.
3. The National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms was set up in August 2011.
4. Gram Nyayalayas were established under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- The scheme for Fast Track Special Courts is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented since October 2019 for the expeditious trial of cases of rape and offences under the POCSO Act.
- The Central Share of the Fast Track Special Courts scheme is met from the Nirbhaya Fund.
- The National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms was set up in August 2011.
- Gram Nyayalayas were established under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
- A. 4 only
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 1 and 3
- D. 3 only