UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Why did the SC reject methanol rules?

Q1. The State rules that required methanol supplied to non-drug manufacturers to be denatured before sale, and which were invalidated by the Supreme Court in 2026, were framed by the State of Maharashtra under which one of the following parent enactments?

  • A. The Poisons Act, 1919, which empowers State Governments to regulate the sale of specified poisons
  • B. The Bombay Prohibition Act, 1949, under which the State regulates denatured spirit and country liquor
  • C. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, which governs the manufacture and sale of drugs and their intermediates
  • D. The Insecticides Act, 1968, which regulates the import, manufacture and sale of toxic agricultural chemicals

Q2. With reference to the 1991 Mumbai hooch tragedy and the regulatory response it generated, which one of the following statements is correct?

  • A. The Maharashtra government inserted the additive rules into its Poisons Rules in the same year in which the tragedy occurred.
  • B. The tragedy prompted Parliament to impose a nationwide prohibition on the industrial use of methanol in all manufacturing sectors.
  • C. The committee that examined the causes of the tragedy was headed by the then Additional Director General of Police, P.R. Parthasarthy.
  • D. The committee recommended that methanol be removed altogether from the category of specified poisons under the poisons framework.

Q3. With reference to the Supreme Court's September 2026 decision in Balaji Formalin Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India, consider the following: 1. The provisions struck down were Rules 18A and 18B of the Maharashtra Poisons Rules, 1972. 2. The Bench that decided the matter comprised Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K. Vinod Chandran. 3. The decision is reported by the neutral citation 2026 INSC 1009. 4. The writ petitioners were pharmaceutical manufacturers licensed to use methanol as a drug intermediate. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The provisions struck down were Rules 18A and 18B of the Maharashtra Poisons Rules, 1972.
  2. The Bench that decided the matter comprised Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K. Vinod Chandran.
  3. The decision is reported by the neutral citation 2026 INSC 1009.
  4. The writ petitioners were pharmaceutical manufacturers licensed to use methanol as a drug intermediate.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q4. Consider the following statements comparing the Supreme Court's September 2026 methanol rules decision with its October 2024 decision on industrial alcohol: 1. The 8:1 decision of October 2024 affirmed the States' regulatory competence over denatured spirit, whereas the 2026 decision invalidated a particular State rule for want of proportionality. 2. The 2026 decision held that State Governments are permanently divested of any power to regulate the sale of methanol in every form. 3. Whereas the 2024 ruling turned on the distribution of legislative powers under the Seventh Schedule, the 2026 ruling turned on the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 14 and 19(1)(g). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 8:1 decision of October 2024 affirmed the States' regulatory competence over denatured spirit, whereas the 2026 decision invalidated a particular State rule for want of proportionality.
  2. The 2026 decision held that State Governments are permanently divested of any power to regulate the sale of methanol in every form.
  3. Whereas the 2024 ruling turned on the distribution of legislative powers under the Seventh Schedule, the 2026 ruling turned on the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 14 and 19(1)(g).
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. The Supreme Court, in recognising privacy as a fundamental right in 2017, set out the conditions a State measure restricting a fundamental right must satisfy. Consider the following: 1. There must exist a law authorising the restriction. 2. The restriction must serve a public purpose. 3. The means adopted must be the least intrusive way of achieving that purpose. 4. The measure must be shown to have wholly eliminated the mischief it targets. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as part of that framework?

  1. There must exist a law authorising the restriction.
  2. The restriction must serve a public purpose.
  3. The means adopted must be the least intrusive way of achieving that purpose.
  4. The measure must be shown to have wholly eliminated the mischief it targets.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the application of the proportionality doctrine by the Supreme Court in successive cases: 1. In the 2018 Aadhaar judgment, the Court struck down Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 for failing the proportionality doctrine. 2. In its 2023 judgment on demonetisation, the Court held that the impugned notification satisfied the test of proportionality and bore a reasonable nexus to the objective sought. 3. In its 2017 judgment, the Court recognised the right to privacy as a fundamental right, subject to reasonable restrictions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. In the 2018 Aadhaar judgment, the Court struck down Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 for failing the proportionality doctrine.
  2. In its 2023 judgment on demonetisation, the Court held that the impugned notification satisfied the test of proportionality and bore a reasonable nexus to the objective sought.
  3. In its 2017 judgment, the Court recognised the right to privacy as a fundamental right, subject to reasonable restrictions.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to Article 19 of the Constitution of India: 1. The right to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is conferred by Article 19(1)(g). 2. Reasonable restrictions on that right, imposed in the interests of the general public, are saved by Article 19(6). 3. Article 19(6) expressly saves laws relating to the professional or technical qualifications necessary for practising any profession. 4. Article 19(6) permits such restricting laws to be made only by Parliament and not by State legislatures. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The right to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is conferred by Article 19(1)(g).
  2. Reasonable restrictions on that right, imposed in the interests of the general public, are saved by Article 19(6).
  3. Article 19(6) expressly saves laws relating to the professional or technical qualifications necessary for practising any profession.
  4. Article 19(6) permits such restricting laws to be made only by Parliament and not by State legislatures.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q8. Consider the following statements comparing Article 14 with Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution of India: 1. Article 14 is available to all persons including non-citizens, whereas the freedom guaranteed by Article 19(1)(g) is available only to citizens. 2. A restriction on Article 19(1)(g) must be justified under Article 19(6), and Article 14 likewise carries an identically worded clause saving reasonable restrictions imposed in the interests of the general public. 3. Article 14 is placed in Part III of the Constitution while Article 19 is placed in Part IV. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Article 14 is available to all persons including non-citizens, whereas the freedom guaranteed by Article 19(1)(g) is available only to citizens.
  2. A restriction on Article 19(1)(g) must be justified under Article 19(6), and Article 14 likewise carries an identically worded clause saving reasonable restrictions imposed in the interests of the general public.
  3. Article 14 is placed in Part III of the Constitution while Article 19 is placed in Part IV.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Consider the following substances: formaldehyde, formic acid, acetaldehyde and ethylene glycol. How many of them are formed as products of the oxidative metabolism of methanol in the human body?

  • A. Only one
  • B. Only two
  • C. Only three
  • D. All four

Q10. In the regulation of methanol that came up for consideration before the Supreme Court, the expression 'denaturing' refers to which one of the following processes?

  • A. Removing naturally occurring impurities so that the liquid attains the purity standards prescribed for pharmaceutical use
  • B. Diluting the liquid with water so that its concentration is brought below a prescribed statutory threshold
  • C. Converting the liquid into a gaseous derivative so that it cannot be stored or transported in bulk containers
  • D. Adding a colourant and a bitterant so that the liquid becomes visually identifiable and unpalatable to drink

Q11. Under the Poisons Act, 1919, the power to make rules regulating the possession for sale, and the sale, of any specified poison is vested in which one of the following?

  • A. The State Government, for the territories under its administration
  • B. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation, functioning under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C. The Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals, functioning under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
  • D. The Narcotics Control Bureau, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs

Q12. Consider the following judicial developments: 1. In May 2025, the Supreme Court barred the grant of ex post facto environmental clearances, striking down a 2017 notification along with office memoranda of 2021 and 2022. 2. In October 2024, the Supreme Court by an 8:1 majority held that 'industrial alcohol' falls within 'intoxicating liquor' under Entry 8 of the State List, overruling its 1990 decision. 3. In May 2023, the Supreme Court set aside the Competition Commission of India's order imposing a penalty of Rs 202 crore on Amazon in relation to its acquisition of a stake in Future Coupons. 4. In September 2026, the Supreme Court struck down Rules 18A and 18B of the Maharashtra Poisons Rules, 1972. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. In May 2025, the Supreme Court barred the grant of ex post facto environmental clearances, striking down a 2017 notification along with office memoranda of 2021 and 2022.
  2. In October 2024, the Supreme Court by an 8:1 majority held that 'industrial alcohol' falls within 'intoxicating liquor' under Entry 8 of the State List, overruling its 1990 decision.
  3. In May 2023, the Supreme Court set aside the Competition Commission of India's order imposing a penalty of Rs 202 crore on Amazon in relation to its acquisition of a stake in Future Coupons.
  4. In September 2026, the Supreme Court struck down Rules 18A and 18B of the Maharashtra Poisons Rules, 1972.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4