UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Dissent in the Commission

Q1. Under Article 324 of the Constitution, who holds the superintendence, direction and control of preparing electoral rolls for elections to Parliament and the State Legislatures?

  • A. The Ministry of Law and Justice, which exclusively controls roll preparation through its Legislative Department
  • B. The State Election Commissions, which control roll preparation for all Assembly constituencies without exception
  • C. The Election Commission of India, which directs roll preparation through Electoral Registration Officers
  • D. The Registrar General of India, the sole authority for roll preparation under the Census Act, 1948

Q2. Which of the following elections are correctly identified as ones whose superintendence, direction and control is vested in the Election Commission of India by Article 324(1)? 1. Elections to both Houses of Parliament 2. Elections to the Legislature of every State 3. Elections to the offices of President and Vice-President 4. Elections to Panchayats and Municipalities in every State Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Elections to both Houses of Parliament
  2. Elections to the Legislature of every State
  3. Elections to the offices of President and Vice-President
  4. Elections to Panchayats and Municipalities in every State
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q3. Under the statute governing how the Election Commission transacts its business, what is the rule when the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners differ in opinion on a matter?

  • A. The CEC's opinion prevails, since the CEC heads the Commission
  • B. The matter is decided according to the opinion of the majority
  • C. The matter goes to the President, who decides on ministerial advice
  • D. The matter stays pending until all members reach a unanimous view

Q4. In T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court upheld the multi-member Election Commission. In which year was that permanent multi-member structure created?

  • A. 1989, when two Election Commissioners were appointed before the general election
  • B. 1990, following the Goswami Committee's recommendations on electoral reform
  • C. 1993, when two more Commissioners were appointed alongside the sitting CEC
  • D. 1991, through the Act fixing CEC and EC salaries on par with Supreme Court judges

Q5. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, as enacted, what does the term 'Search Committee' refer to?

  • A. A panel of the PM, a Union Cabinet Minister and the Leader of Opposition that recommends names to the President
  • B. A panel headed by the Cabinet Secretary, with two Secretary-rank members, that proposes five names
  • C. A panel of the PM, the Leader of Opposition and the CJI that advises the President on appointments
  • D. A panel headed by the Law Minister, with two Secretary-rank members, that prepares a list of five names

Q6. Consider the following statements about the appointment of the CEC and ECs under the 2023 Act: 1. The Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition or leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha. 2. A recommendation of the Selection Committee becomes invalid if there is a vacancy in the Committee. 3. To be appointed, a person must hold, or have held, a post equivalent to Secretary to the Government of India. 4. The Selection Committee can recommend only persons from the panel prepared by the Search Committee. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition or leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha.
  2. A recommendation of the Selection Committee becomes invalid if there is a vacancy in the Committee.
  3. To be appointed, a person must hold, or have held, a post equivalent to Secretary to the Government of India.
  4. The Selection Committee can recommend only persons from the panel prepared by the Search Committee.
  • A. 2 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q7. Consider the following statements comparing the security of tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) with that of the other Election Commissioners (ECs): 1. The CEC can be removed from office only in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. 2. The 2023 Act, which repealed the 1991 Act, left the constitutional procedure for removing the CEC and ECs unchanged. 3. The ECs enjoy exactly the same protection as the CEC, since they can never be removed except through the procedure that applies to a Supreme Court judge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The CEC can be removed from office only in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. The 2023 Act, which repealed the 1991 Act, left the constitutional procedure for removing the CEC and ECs unchanged.
  3. The ECs enjoy exactly the same protection as the CEC, since they can never be removed except through the procedure that applies to a Supreme Court judge.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Under the 2023 Act, a person is appointed Election Commissioner at the age of 58 and is later elevated to Chief Election Commissioner. What is the maximum total number of years this person can serve in the Commission?

  • A. 5
  • B. 6
  • C. 7
  • D. 12

Q9. Along with Article 324 of the Constitution, which statutory provision did the Election Commission invoke to direct the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in Bihar in 2025?

  • A. Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • B. Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • C. Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
  • D. Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Q10. Which of the following are correctly identified as States/UTs covered in Phase-II of the Special Intensive Revision, which used 01.01.2026 as the qualifying date? 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Assam 3. Lakshadweep 4. Jammu and Kashmir Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Assam
  3. Lakshadweep
  4. Jammu and Kashmir
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q11. According to reports in September 2026, on at least how many occasions had Election Commissioners Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Vivek Joshi formally recorded objections to Commission decisions and orders during the SIR?

  • A. 4
  • B. 10
  • C. 14
  • D. 30

Q12. Which of the following pairings of a provision or instrument with its role in electoral registration are correctly identified? 1. Article 326: elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of adult suffrage 2. Section 16, RP Act 1950: disqualifications for registration in an electoral roll 3. Form 6: application for inclusion of a name in the electoral roll 4. Aadhaar card: accepted under Supreme Court directions during the Bihar SIR as proof of citizenship Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Article 326: elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of adult suffrage
  2. Section 16, RP Act 1950: disqualifications for registration in an electoral roll
  3. Form 6: application for inclusion of a name in the electoral roll
  4. Aadhaar card: accepted under Supreme Court directions during the Bihar SIR as proof of citizenship
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4