UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Before new taxes, making every rupee count

Q1. The CAG's State Finances Audit Report faults State departments for failing to reconcile their expenditure and receipt figures. With whose records is such reconciliation of a State's departmental figures required to be carried out?

  • A. The Accountant General (Accounts and Entitlement) of the State, functioning under the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  • B. The Controller General of Accounts in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, Government of India
  • C. The Directorate of Treasuries and Accounts of the State Finance Department
  • D. The Public Accounts Committee Secretariat of the State Legislative Assembly

Q2. The CAG's duty to audit all receipts payable into the Consolidated Fund of a State, and to satisfy himself that the rules and procedures secure an effective check on assessment, collection and proper allocation of revenue, is laid down in which provision?

  • A. Section 13 of the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
  • B. Section 14 of the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
  • C. Section 16 of the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
  • D. Section 19 of the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971

Q3. In a CAG State Finances Audit Report, the year's actual revenue and fiscal deficits are compared with the projections in the Medium-Term Fiscal Plan. Who prepares that Medium-Term Fiscal Plan?

  • A. The State Government's Finance Department, which lays it before the State Legislature with the annual Budget
  • B. The office of the Principal Accountant General (Audit) of the State, under the CAG of India
  • C. The Finance Commission constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution
  • D. The Reserve Bank of India, as debt manager to the State Governments

Q4. As noted in the CAG's State Finances Audit Report on Tamil Nadu for 2023-24, the State's fiscal responsibility legislation required the revenue deficit to be eliminated by which year?

  • A. 2023-24
  • B. 2024-25
  • C. 2025-26
  • D. 2027-28

Q5. Which of the following has been entrusted by the Tamil Nadu government with preparing a roadmap to lift the State's own tax revenue from about 5.5 per cent of GSDP to around 8 per cent, by improving compliance, plugging leakages and rationalising rates, fees and exemptions?

  • A. A six-member committee chaired by Montek Singh Ahluwalia, a former Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
  • B. The State Finance Commission constituted by the Governor under Article 243-I of the Constitution
  • C. The State Level Bankers' Committee, convened by the lead bank for Tamil Nadu
  • D. The Commercial Taxes Department's State GST Advisory Council for Tamil Nadu

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu Budget for 2026-27 as compared with earlier reference points: 1. Capital expenditure for 2026-27 has been pegged at about Rs 56,985 crore, roughly 10 per cent higher than the Revised Estimate for 2025-26. 2. The revenue deficit estimated for 2026-27 is larger than the revenue deficit of Rs 45,121 crore reported by the CAG for 2023-24. 3. The borrowings provided for in 2026-27 are smaller than the amount to be repaid on existing loans during that year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Capital expenditure for 2026-27 has been pegged at about Rs 56,985 crore, roughly 10 per cent higher than the Revised Estimate for 2025-26.
  2. The revenue deficit estimated for 2026-27 is larger than the revenue deficit of Rs 45,121 crore reported by the CAG for 2023-24.
  3. The borrowings provided for in 2026-27 are smaller than the amount to be repaid on existing loans during that year.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to the CAG's State Finances Audit Report on Tamil Nadu for the year ended 31 March 2024, consider the following: 1. Capital expenditure amounted to 31 per cent of the State's total borrowings during the year. 2. Capital expenditure was 11.28 per cent of the State's total expenditure during the year. 3. The debt-GSDP ratio declined from 28.00 per cent in 2019-20 to 24.35 per cent in 2023-24. 4. The revenue deficit registered an increase of 24.59 per cent over the previous year. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as findings of that report?

  1. Capital expenditure amounted to 31 per cent of the State's total borrowings during the year.
  2. Capital expenditure was 11.28 per cent of the State's total expenditure during the year.
  3. The debt-GSDP ratio declined from 28.00 per cent in 2019-20 to 24.35 per cent in 2023-24.
  4. The revenue deficit registered an increase of 24.59 per cent over the previous year.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q8. The CAG's audit for 2023-24 flagged unnecessary supplementary provisions of about Rs 1,078 crore, obtained across 81 cases even though the original allocations had not been exhausted. Across how many grants were these cases spread?

  • A. 26 grants
  • B. 33 grants
  • C. 48 grants
  • D. 81 grants

Q9. With reference to the recommendations of the Sixteenth Finance Commission for the award period 2026-31, consider the following: 1. The share of States in the net proceeds of Union taxes has been retained at 41 per cent. 2. Post-devolution revenue deficit grants are to continue for eligible States. 3. Grants for disaster management carry a Centre-State cost-sharing ratio of 90:10 for the North-Eastern and Himalayan States. 4. In the horizontal devolution formula, the 'contribution to GDP' criterion has been replaced by 'tax and fiscal efforts'. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The share of States in the net proceeds of Union taxes has been retained at 41 per cent.
  2. Post-devolution revenue deficit grants are to continue for eligible States.
  3. Grants for disaster management carry a Centre-State cost-sharing ratio of 90:10 for the North-Eastern and Himalayan States.
  4. In the horizontal devolution formula, the 'contribution to GDP' criterion has been replaced by 'tax and fiscal efforts'.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q10. The Finance Commission recommends the States' share as a percentage of the 'divisible pool'. Which one of the following correctly describes that pool?

  • A. Gross tax revenue of the Centre, reduced by the cost of collection and by cesses and surcharges levied for specified purposes
  • B. Gross tax revenue of the Centre, reduced by grants-in-aid released to the States under Article 275 of the Constitution
  • C. Total receipts of the Centre, reduced by non-tax revenue, disinvestment proceeds and the cost of collection
  • D. Net tax revenue of the Centre, reduced by the compensation payable to States for revenue loss on account of GST

Q11. The Government Accounting Standards Advisory Board, which frames the Indian Government Accounting Standards governing accounting and classification in Union and State accounts, was set up by the CAG under which Article of the Constitution?

  • A. Article 148
  • B. Article 149
  • C. Article 150
  • D. Article 151

Q12. Consider the following statements about supplementary and excess grants: 1. A supplementary demand for grant is presented during the financial year in which the additional expenditure is required, whereas an excess demand for grant is presented after the close of the year in which spending exceeded the amount granted. 2. Article 115 covers supplementary, additional and excess grants, while Article 116 covers votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants. 3. Every supplementary demand for grant must invariably be examined and recommended by the Public Accounts Committee before the House can vote on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A supplementary demand for grant is presented during the financial year in which the additional expenditure is required, whereas an excess demand for grant is presented after the close of the year in which spending exceeded the amount granted.
  2. Article 115 covers supplementary, additional and excess grants, while Article 116 covers votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants.
  3. Every supplementary demand for grant must invariably be examined and recommended by the Public Accounts Committee before the House can vote on it.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3