UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — House in disorder

Q1. In the procedure of the Lok Sabha, the expression 'naming' of a member by the Speaker refers to which one of the following?

• A. Formally citing a member for persistently and wilfully obstructing the business of the House, ordinarily followed by a motion for that member's suspension
• B. Directing a member guilty of grossly disorderly conduct to withdraw from the House for the remainder of that day's sitting
• C. Announcing the names of members nominated to the department-related standing committees for the ensuing year
• D. Listing a member by name to raise a matter of urgent public importance immediately after the Question Hour is over

Q2. Automatic suspension of a member for up to five consecutive sittings, without any motion being moved in the House, for creating grave disorder by coming into the Well is provided for under which one of the following?

• A. Rule 374A of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, introduced in 2001
• B. Rule 374 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, invoked by the Speaker since 1993
• C. Rule 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, as amended in the Tenth Edition
• D. Rule 256 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States, introduced in 2001

Q3. With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following: 1. It bars State Governments from imposing any tax, cess or levy on mineral rights or mineral-bearing land, except in accordance with conditions prescribed by the Central Government. 2. It extends the Union's declaration of control to 'mineral bearing lands', to be identified as per parameters prescribed by the Central Government. 3. It deems invalid such State levies as remained unpaid before its commencement, while not requiring refund of amounts already recovered. 4. It renames the National Mineral Exploration Trust and raises the contribution to it from two per cent to three per cent of royalty. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as provisions of the Bill?

1. It bars State Governments from imposing any tax, cess or levy on mineral rights or mineral-bearing land, except in accordance with conditions prescribed by the Central Government.
2. It extends the Union's declaration of control to 'mineral bearing lands', to be identified as per parameters prescribed by the Central Government.
3. It deems invalid such State levies as remained unpaid before its commencement, while not requiring refund of amounts already recovered.
4. It renames the National Mineral Exploration Trust and raises the contribution to it from two per cent to three per cent of royalty.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1, 2 and 3
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1 and 4 only

Q4. Which one of the following is the principal ground on which the legislative competence of Parliament to enact the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 has been questioned?

• A. That taxes on lands fall under Entry 49 of the State List, over which Parliament does not have competence
• B. That taxes on mineral rights fall under Entry 50 of the State List, which is expressly beyond any limitation imposed by Parliament
• C. That regulation of mines under Entry 23 of the State List is immune from any declaration made by Parliament by law
• D. That Entry 54 of the Union List permits Union control only over minor minerals declared expedient in the public interest

Q5. Consider the following statements about how the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2025 changed the position obtaining under the earlier law: 1. It renamed the National Mineral Exploration Trust as the National Mineral Exploration and Development Trust and raised contributions to it from two per cent to three per cent of royalty. 2. It removed the ceiling of fifty per cent on the sale of minerals from captive mines in the open market. 3. It permits a one-time extension of the leased area by up to ten per cent for composite licences and thirty per cent for mining leases, for minerals occurring below two hundred metres. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. It renamed the National Mineral Exploration Trust as the National Mineral Exploration and Development Trust and raised contributions to it from two per cent to three per cent of royalty.
2. It removed the ceiling of fifty per cent on the sale of minerals from captive mines in the open market.
3. It permits a one-time extension of the leased area by up to ten per cent for composite licences and thirty per cent for mining leases, for minerals occurring below two hundred metres.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Which one of the following statements about the administration of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 is correct?

• A. It is administered by the Ministry of Mines, which auctions blocks of specified critical and strategic minerals
• B. It is administered by the Ministry of Coal, which alone grants every mineral concession in the country
• C. It is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, whose clearance is the sole basis of every concession
• D. It is administered by NITI Aayog, whose prior approval is necessary for all mineral auctions held by States

Q7. Which one of the following is the principal earlier decision that was overruled by the nine-judge Bench in Mineral Area Development Authority v. Steel Authority of India (2024)?

• A. India Cement Ltd. v. State of Tamil Nadu
• B. State of West Bengal v. Kesoram Industries Ltd.
• C. State of Orissa v. M. A. Tulloch and Co.
• D. Hingir-Rampur Coal Co. v. State of Orissa

Q8. As held by the majority in Mineral Area Development Authority v. Steel Authority of India (2024), 'royalty' payable under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 is best described as which one of the following?

• A. A contractual consideration paid by the mining lessee to the lessor for enjoyment of mineral rights
• B. A compulsory exaction that is necessarily a tax, since its rates are fixed under a law made by Parliament
• C. A regulatory fee payable exclusively to the Central Government on every quantity of mineral removed
• D. A cess on mineral-bearing land that States are entirely barred from levying under the State List

Q9. Which one of the following correctly describes the position taken on Vande Mataram in the Constituent Assembly on 24 January 1950?

• A. It was to be honoured equally with, and have the same status as, the National Anthem, Jana Gana Mana
• B. It was adopted as the National Anthem, while Jana Gana Mana was designated the National Song of India
• C. It was declared the National Song by a resolution ranking it below the National Anthem in official protocol
• D. It was recognised as a national symbol and respect for it was made a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(a)

Q10. Which one of the following statements about the department-related standing committees of Parliament is correct?

• A. There are 24 such committees, of which 16 are under the jurisdiction of the Speaker and 8 under that of the Chairman
• B. Every Bill introduced in Parliament must necessarily be referred to the concerned committee before it is passed
• C. Each committee consists of 31 members, all of whom are drawn exclusively from the House of the People
• D. The committees were first constituted in 1993 and their recommendations are binding on the Government in all cases

Q11. In the Lok Sabha, which one of the following is ordinarily the first item taken up after the House meets for a sitting?

• A. Question Hour, during which starred questions are answered orally on the floor of the House
• B. Zero Hour, during which members raise matters of urgent public importance without prior notice
• C. Laying of papers on the Table of the House by Ministers on behalf of their Ministries
• D. Short notice questions, admitted at a notice shorter than that prescribed for other questions