UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Prior permission must for protests, rallies: Ranchi Deputy Commissioner

Q1. In the list of freedoms enumerated in clause (1) of Article 19 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is guaranteed by the sub-clause standing immediately after the sub-clause on freedom of speech and expression?

  • A. The right of all persons in India to form associations or unions, including co-operative societies
  • B. The right of all citizens to move freely throughout the territory of India and to reside in any part of it
  • C. The right of all citizens to assemble peaceably and without arms
  • D. The right of all persons to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the freedom of assembly with the other freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 of the Constitution of India: 1. The freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms is available to citizens as well as to foreign nationals lawfully residing in India, unlike the freedom of movement, which is confined to citizens. 2. Restrictions on the freedom of assembly may be imposed in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India and public order, whereas restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression may additionally be imposed on grounds such as decency or morality, contempt of court and defamation. 3. The freedom to form associations or unions is guaranteed by Article 19(1)(c), and morality is among the grounds on which this freedom may be restricted. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms is available to citizens as well as to foreign nationals lawfully residing in India, unlike the freedom of movement, which is confined to citizens.
  2. Restrictions on the freedom of assembly may be imposed in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India and public order, whereas restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression may additionally be imposed on grounds such as decency or morality, contempt of court and defamation.
  3. The freedom to form associations or unions is guaranteed by Article 19(1)(c), and morality is among the grounds on which this freedom may be restricted.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. For the purpose of the restrictions permitted by Article 19(3) of the Constitution, the expression 'public order' is best understood as denoting which one of the following?

  • A. Any act of nuisance or breach of the peace affecting an individual, since every such act necessarily disturbs the community as a whole
  • B. A state of tranquillity among the members of the political community, the disturbance of which affects the life of the community at large
  • C. Activity that threatens the very existence of the State or of the government established by law, such as waging war or armed rebellion
  • D. The uninterrupted maintenance of essential services and supplies, the stoppage of which endangers the economic life of the community

Q4. Under Article 19(3) of the Constitution of India, the State may impose reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms on specified grounds. With reference to these grounds, consider the following: 1. The sovereignty and integrity of India 2. Public order 3. Decency or morality 4. Any apprehended breach of the peace, howsoever remote Which of the above is/are correctly identified as grounds available under Article 19(3)?

  1. The sovereignty and integrity of India
  2. Public order
  3. Decency or morality
  4. Any apprehended breach of the peace, howsoever remote
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 3 only

Q5. An order restraining public gatherings in a district in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger is made under Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023. Which one of the following statements about the authority to make such an order is correct?

  • A. It is exercisable only by a Judicial Magistrate of the first class, acting on a written report submitted by the Superintendent of Police of the district
  • B. It is exercisable by the Commissioner of Police or the Superintendent of Police of the district, subject to review by the District Magistrate within thirty days
  • C. It is exercisable by any Executive Magistrate posted in the district, but every such order lapses unless confirmed by the State Government within twenty-four hours
  • D. It is exercisable by the District Magistrate, a Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or any other Executive Magistrate specially empowered by the State Government in this behalf

Q6. The three new criminal laws that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 with effect from 1 July 2024 were piloted in Parliament and brought into force through commencement notifications issued by which one of the following?

  • A. The Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India
  • B. The Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India
  • C. The Department of Justice of the Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India
  • D. The Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding magistrates under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023: 1. Executive Magistrates in a district are appointed by the State Government, whereas Judicial Magistrates are appointed by the High Court. 2. The State Government appoints one of the Executive Magistrates of a district to be the District Magistrate, and may appoint an Executive Magistrate as an Additional District Magistrate with such of the powers of a District Magistrate as it may direct. 3. A Sub-divisional Magistrate is an Executive Magistrate placed in charge of a sub-division by the High Court, which alone may withdraw such charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Executive Magistrates in a district are appointed by the State Government, whereas Judicial Magistrates are appointed by the High Court.
  2. The State Government appoints one of the Executive Magistrates of a district to be the District Magistrate, and may appoint an Executive Magistrate as an Additional District Magistrate with such of the powers of a District Magistrate as it may direct.
  3. A Sub-divisional Magistrate is an Executive Magistrate placed in charge of a sub-division by the High Court, which alone may withdraw such charge.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Which one of the following correctly describes the authority for appointing Executive Magistrates in a district under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

  • A. Every such appointment is made by the High Court, which alone may confer on any of the persons so appointed the powers of a District Magistrate
  • B. All such appointments are made by the Central Government on the recommendation of the State Public Service Commission concerned
  • C. The State Government may appoint as many persons as it thinks fit to be Executive Magistrates in every district and shall appoint one of them to be the District Magistrate
  • D. The District Magistrate appoints all Executive Magistrates in the district, every such appointment being invariably subject to confirmation by the Governor

Q9. In August 2026, responding to the agitation in Ranchi over alleged irregularities in state recruitment examinations, the Government of Jharkhand issued notifications dealing with 44 examinations conducted since 2014. How many of these examinations were cancelled outright, the remainder being referred for investigation?

  • A. 11
  • B. 22
  • C. 23
  • D. 44

Q10. With reference to the recruitment examinations at the centre of the 2026 Jharkhand agitation, which one of the following statements is correct?

  • A. The Combined Graduate Level examination is conducted by the Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission, while the Civil Services examination that fills posts such as Deputy Collector is conducted by the Jharkhand Public Service Commission
  • B. Both the Combined Graduate Level examination and the Civil Services examination for posts such as Deputy Collector are conducted by the Jharkhand Public Service Commission, the Staff Selection Commission being confined to Group D posts
  • C. The Combined Graduate Level examination is conducted by the Jharkhand Public Service Commission, while appointments of food safety officers are made directly by the Jharkhand High Court on the basis of a separate merit list
  • D. Both examinations are conducted by the Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission, the Jharkhand Public Service Commission functioning only as the appellate authority for examination grievances

Q11. Consider the following statements about a State Public Service Commission as compared with the Union Public Service Commission: 1. The Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State, but can be removed from office only by the President. 2. A member of a State Public Service Commission holds office for six years or until attaining the age of sixty-five years, whereas a member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for six years or until attaining the age of sixty-two years, whichever is earlier. 3. The annual report on the work done by a State Public Service Commission is presented to the Governor, who causes it to be laid before the Legislature of the State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State, but can be removed from office only by the President.
  2. A member of a State Public Service Commission holds office for six years or until attaining the age of sixty-five years, whereas a member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for six years or until attaining the age of sixty-two years, whichever is earlier.
  3. The annual report on the work done by a State Public Service Commission is presented to the Governor, who causes it to be laid before the Legislature of the State.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the district administration's role in regulating public assemblies as distinguished from that of the police: 1. 'Public order' and 'police' are subjects in the State List of the Seventh Schedule, so the primary responsibility for regulating processions and public meetings rests with the State Government and its officers. 2. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an unlawful assembly may be commanded to disperse by an Executive Magistrate as well as by an officer in charge of a police station. 3. The Deputy Commissioner of a district, in the capacity of District Magistrate, exercises disciplinary control over the district police force, the Superintendent of Police being subordinate to the District Magistrate in matters of internal police administration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 'Public order' and 'police' are subjects in the State List of the Seventh Schedule, so the primary responsibility for regulating processions and public meetings rests with the State Government and its officers.
  2. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, an unlawful assembly may be commanded to disperse by an Executive Magistrate as well as by an officer in charge of a police station.
  3. The Deputy Commissioner of a district, in the capacity of District Magistrate, exercises disciplinary control over the district police force, the Superintendent of Police being subordinate to the District Magistrate in matters of internal police administration.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3