UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Kharge, Rahul to speak at CEC ‘impeachment’ event

Q1. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner enjoys a lower degree of protection of tenure than the Chief Election Commissioner.
  2. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the President on the advice of the Selection Committee constituted under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q2. With reference to the procedure for removing a Judge of the Supreme Court, which also applies to the Chief Election Commissioner, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. The process may begin with a notice given by members of either House of Parliament and is not confined to the Lok Sabha.
  2. Once the notice is admitted, the committee that inquires into the charges is constituted by the Chief Justice of India.
  3. The motion for removal is taken up for consideration in the House only if the inquiry committee's report records a finding of misbehaviour or incapacity.
  4. After both Houses have passed the address with the required majority, the order of removal is made by the President.
  • A. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q3. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. When the presiding officer of a House refuses to admit a notice of motion for removing the Chief Election Commissioner, the matter ends without any inquiry committee being constituted.
  2. The Constitution permits the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q4. Consider the following facts: In 2026, notices of motion for removing the Chief Election Commissioner were given in both Houses of Parliament and were rejected by the presiding officers at the admission stage. A fresh notice was later given in the Rajya Sabha. No Chief Election Commissioner has ever been removed through the parliamentary process. Which of the following inferences can validly be drawn from the above facts?

  1. The rejection of the notices amounted to a finding that the Chief Election Commissioner had not committed misbehaviour.
  2. The fact that no Chief Election Commissioner has ever been removed shows that every Chief Election Commissioner so far has discharged his duties impartially.
  3. The rejected notices did not reach the stage of a vote in either House on an address for removal.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 1 only

Q5. With reference to the impeachment of the President of India and the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. In the impeachment of the President, a charge preferred by one House is investigated by the other House.
  2. A resolution impeaching the President needs a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House, whereas an address for removing a Supreme Court judge needs a majority of the total membership together with two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  3. Like the removal of a Supreme Court judge, the impeachment of the President requires the charge to be inquired into by a committee constituted under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q6. With reference to the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Under the 2023 Act, the Selection Committee is confined to choosing from the panel of names prepared by the Search Committee.
  2. The arrangement laid down in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023), which placed the Chief Justice of India on the appointment panel, was to operate only until Parliament made a law on the subject.
  3. Under the 2023 Act, members drawn from the Union executive form a majority of the Selection Committee.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q7. Under Article 324(1), the Election Commission of India has 'superintendence, direction and control' over the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of certain elections. To which one of the following elections does this mandate NOT extend?

  • A. Elections to a District Panchayat
  • B. Elections to a State Legislative Council
  • C. Election to the office of Vice-President
  • D. Election to the office of President

Q8. With reference to the Leader of the Opposition in Parliament, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The office of Leader of the Opposition is created by the Constitution, which also lays down its functions.
  2. Recognition as Leader of the Opposition requires that the member lead the opposition party with the greatest numerical strength in the House and be recognised as such by the Speaker or the Chairman.
  3. The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 requires the largest opposition party to hold at least one-tenth of the seats in the House before its leader can be recognised.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 2 only