UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — True justice lies in being able to rise above factional debates, says Kapil Sibal

Q1. In the context of the Indian constitutional scheme, the doctrine of 'constitutional supremacy' is best defined as which one of the following?

  • A. The principle that the Constitution is the ultimate source of legal authority, so that every organ of the State, including Parliament, derives its powers from it and is limited by it
  • B. The principle that Parliament is always sovereign and its enactments can never be questioned by any court
  • C. The principle that the Supreme Court stands supreme over all other organs of the State in every matter
  • D. The principle that the Union is supreme over the States in all fields of legislation

Q2. With reference to how the Indian model of constitutional supremacy differs from the British model of parliamentary sovereignty, consider the following statements: 1. Under the Indian Constitution, Parliament's power to amend the Constitution is subject to judicial review, whereas under the British system Parliament is traditionally regarded as legally sovereign. 2. The basic structure doctrine limits the amending power of the Indian Parliament, a limitation that has no exact counterpart in the traditional British doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty. 3. Like the United Kingdom, India follows an uncodified constitution in which no single document is regarded as supreme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under the Indian Constitution, Parliament's power to amend the Constitution is subject to judicial review, whereas under the British system Parliament is traditionally regarded as legally sovereign.
  2. The basic structure doctrine limits the amending power of the Indian Parliament, a limitation that has no exact counterpart in the traditional British doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty.
  3. Like the United Kingdom, India follows an uncodified constitution in which no single document is regarded as supreme.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Which one of the following is the case in which the Supreme Court of India first propounded the 'basic structure' doctrine?

  • A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
  • B. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967)
  • C. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951)
  • D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)

Q4. The 'basic structure doctrine' as enunciated by the Supreme Court of India holds which one of the following?

  • A. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution but cannot alter or destroy its essential features
  • B. Parliament cannot amend any provision of the Constitution once it has been enacted
  • C. Fundamental Rights can never be amended, though all other provisions may be freely amended
  • D. The Constitution can be amended only through a nationwide referendum of the electorate

Q5. The Sabarimala temple-entry case, in which the Supreme Court invoked the doctrine of constitutional morality, was decided by a Constitution Bench comprising how many judges?

  • A. 5
  • B. 3
  • C. 7
  • D. 9

Q6. In Indian constitutional discourse, the expression 'constitutional morality' is most closely associated with its original articulation by which one of the following?

  • A. B.R. Ambedkar, in the Constituent Assembly Debates
  • B. Jawaharlal Nehru, in his 'Objectives Resolution'
  • C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, in the report on fundamental rights
  • D. K.M. Munshi, in the draft Directive Principles

Q7. Consider the following statements about the mechanisms for appointment of judges in India: 1. The collegium is an extra-constitutional mechanism evolved through judicial interpretation and not expressly named in the text of the Constitution. 2. The NJAC established by the 99th Amendment was upheld as constitutionally valid by the Supreme Court. 3. The Third Judges Case (1998) fixed the Supreme Court collegium's strength at the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges. 4. The First Judges Case (1981) held that 'consultation' did not amount to 'concurrence', thereby giving primacy to the executive. Which of the statements given above are correctly stated?

  1. The collegium is an extra-constitutional mechanism evolved through judicial interpretation and not expressly named in the text of the Constitution.
  2. The NJAC established by the 99th Amendment was upheld as constitutionally valid by the Supreme Court.
  3. The Third Judges Case (1998) fixed the Supreme Court collegium's strength at the Chief Justice of India and four senior-most judges.
  4. The First Judges Case (1981) held that 'consultation' did not amount to 'concurrence', thereby giving primacy to the executive.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1, 3 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q8. The 'Justice Unplugged' law conclave organised by The Hindu together with VIT School of Law, at which Kapil Sibal spoke in conversation with N. Ram in 2026, was held as which edition of the event?

  • A. Second
  • B. First
  • C. Third
  • D. Fifth

Q9. When it came into force in 1950, the Constitution of India — whose 75th anniversary of adoption began to be commemorated from 26 November 2024 — contained how many Articles?

  • A. 395
  • B. 448
  • C. 370
  • D. 356

Q10. Consider the following statements about rules of statutory and constitutional interpretation: 1. The Literal Rule interprets the words of a statute in their plain, ordinary and grammatical meaning. 2. The Mischief Rule, traced to Heydon's Case, seeks to suppress the mischief the statute was intended to remedy. 3. Harmonious construction is applied to reconcile apparently conflicting provisions so that each is given effect. 4. Purposive interpretation confines the court strictly to the literal text, irrespective of the object of the law. Which of the statements given above are correctly stated?

  1. The Literal Rule interprets the words of a statute in their plain, ordinary and grammatical meaning.
  2. The Mischief Rule, traced to Heydon's Case, seeks to suppress the mischief the statute was intended to remedy.
  3. Harmonious construction is applied to reconcile apparently conflicting provisions so that each is given effect.
  4. Purposive interpretation confines the court strictly to the literal text, irrespective of the object of the law.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q11. Consider the following statements linking constitutional provisions to judicial independence: 1. Article 124 provides for the establishment of the Supreme Court and the appointment of its judges. 2. Article 217 provides for the appointment of the judges of the High Courts. 3. Article 50 is a Directive Principle directing the State to separate the judiciary from the executive. 4. Article 32 guarantees security of tenure to the judges of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above are correctly stated?

  1. Article 124 provides for the establishment of the Supreme Court and the appointment of its judges.
  2. Article 217 provides for the appointment of the judges of the High Courts.
  3. Article 50 is a Directive Principle directing the State to separate the judiciary from the executive.
  4. Article 32 guarantees security of tenure to the judges of the Supreme Court.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1 and 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4 only