UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — In the way

Q1. Under the Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026, what is the total sanctioned strength of the National Tribunals Commission, including its Chairperson?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Seven

Q2. The Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026, which establishes the National Tribunals Commission, was piloted in Parliament by which one of the following Ministries?

  • A. The Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • C. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  • D. The Ministry of Finance

Q3. The Supreme Court judgment of 19 November 2025 that invalidated the appointment, tenure and service-condition provisions of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 was delivered by a Bench headed by which one of the following judges?

  • A. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
  • B. Justice Sanjiv Khanna
  • C. Justice L. Nageswara Rao
  • D. Justice B.R. Gavai

Q4. With reference to the Supreme Court's November 2025 decision on the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 as compared with the legislative provisions it examined, consider the following statements: 1. The Court found that provisions it had earlier invalidated in the 2021 Ordinance had been re-enacted, with only minor changes, in the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021. 2. The Court restored the position that members of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal and the CESTAT hold office until 62 years of age, and their chairperson or president until 65 years. 3. The Court upheld the Act's provisions on eligibility, selection and tenure of members, and struck down only its abolition of the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Court found that provisions it had earlier invalidated in the 2021 Ordinance had been re-enacted, with only minor changes, in the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021.
  2. The Court restored the position that members of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal and the CESTAT hold office until 62 years of age, and their chairperson or president until 65 years.
  3. The Court upheld the Act's provisions on eligibility, selection and tenure of members, and struck down only its abolition of the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Consider the following statements comparing landmark Supreme Court decisions on tribunals: 1. Rojer Mathew (2019) held that tribunals wholly replace the writ jurisdiction of High Courts, so that their decisions are final and appealable exclusively to the Supreme Court. 2. S.P. Sampath Kumar (1987) accepted tribunals as alternative institutional mechanisms to High Courts provided they were no less effective, and stressed consultation with the Chief Justice of India in appointments. 3. L. Chandra Kumar (1997) held that decisions of tribunals are subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Rojer Mathew (2019) held that tribunals wholly replace the writ jurisdiction of High Courts, so that their decisions are final and appealable exclusively to the Supreme Court.
  2. S.P. Sampath Kumar (1987) accepted tribunals as alternative institutional mechanisms to High Courts provided they were no less effective, and stressed consultation with the Chief Justice of India in appointments.
  3. L. Chandra Kumar (1997) held that decisions of tribunals are subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court concerned.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Consider the following pairs of Supreme Court decisions and the propositions attributed to them: 1. L. Chandra Kumar (1997) — decisions of tribunals are subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court concerned. 2. Madras Bar Association (2021) — a five-year term for tribunal members with a retirement age of 67 years. 3. Rojer Mathew (2019) — the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction by clauses of Articles 323A and 323B is unconstitutional, judicial review being part of the basic structure. 4. S.P. Sampath Kumar (1987) — tribunals are permissible as alternative institutional mechanisms if they are no less effective than High Courts. Which of the above pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. L. Chandra Kumar (1997) — decisions of tribunals are subject to scrutiny before a Division Bench of the High Court concerned.
  2. Madras Bar Association (2021) — a five-year term for tribunal members with a retirement age of 67 years.
  3. Rojer Mathew (2019) — the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction by clauses of Articles 323A and 323B is unconstitutional, judicial review being part of the basic structure.
  4. S.P. Sampath Kumar (1987) — tribunals are permissible as alternative institutional mechanisms if they are no less effective than High Courts.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q7. Which one of the following cases, decided by the largest Bench ever to sit in the Supreme Court of India, first laid down that Parliament's amending power cannot alter the essential features of the Constitution?

  • A. Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967)
  • B. Indira Nehru Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975)
  • C. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973)
  • D. Minerva Mills vs Union of India (1980)

Q8. With reference to judicial review and the basic structure doctrine, consider the following propositions: 1. Judicial review under Articles 32, 226 and 227 forms part of the basic structure, so orders of tribunals remain open to scrutiny by the High Courts. 2. Separation of powers, federalism and the rule of law have been recognised as elements of the basic structure. 3. Since the basic structure is unamendable, Parliament has no power whatsoever to amend any provision of the Constitution relating to fundamental rights. 4. Once a constitutional amendment has been ratified by the requisite number of State Legislatures, it becomes permanently immune from judicial review. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Judicial review under Articles 32, 226 and 227 forms part of the basic structure, so orders of tribunals remain open to scrutiny by the High Courts.
  2. Separation of powers, federalism and the rule of law have been recognised as elements of the basic structure.
  3. Since the basic structure is unamendable, Parliament has no power whatsoever to amend any provision of the Constitution relating to fundamental rights.
  4. Once a constitutional amendment has been ratified by the requisite number of State Legislatures, it becomes permanently immune from judicial review.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 2 only

Q9. Which of the following are correctly identified as provisions of the Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021, as carried forward into the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021? 1. A minimum age of 50 years for appointment as a member of a tribunal. 2. A term of office of four years, subject to an upper age limit of 70 years for the Chairperson and 67 years for other members. 3. A Search-cum-Selection Committee chaired by the Chief Justice of India, or a Supreme Court judge nominated by him, having a casting vote. 4. A National Tribunals Commission entrusted with conducting the selection process for all tribunal vacancies. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. A minimum age of 50 years for appointment as a member of a tribunal.
  2. A term of office of four years, subject to an upper age limit of 70 years for the Chairperson and 67 years for other members.
  3. A Search-cum-Selection Committee chaired by the Chief Justice of India, or a Supreme Court judge nominated by him, having a casting vote.
  4. A National Tribunals Commission entrusted with conducting the selection process for all tribunal vacancies.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. With reference to Articles 323A and 323B of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. They were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976, following the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. 2. Article 323A provides for tribunals on matters such as taxation, foreign exchange and industrial disputes, while Article 323B is confined to recruitment and conditions of service of public servants. 3. In L. Chandra Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court upheld the clauses of Articles 323A and 323B that excluded the jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226. 4. Tribunals under Article 323B may be constituted by State Legislatures as well as by Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. They were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976, following the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  2. Article 323A provides for tribunals on matters such as taxation, foreign exchange and industrial disputes, while Article 323B is confined to recruitment and conditions of service of public servants.
  3. In L. Chandra Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court upheld the clauses of Articles 323A and 323B that excluded the jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226.
  4. Tribunals under Article 323B may be constituted by State Legislatures as well as by Parliament.
  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2 and 3
  • D. 3 only

Q11. When Parliament cleared the Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026 in August 2026, the vacancy position placed on record showed that, out of 518 sanctioned posts of chairpersons and members across tribunals, approximately how many were lying vacant as of December 2025?

  • A. 47
  • B. 94
  • C. 188
  • D. 276

Q12. Under which one of the following enactments was the number of tribunals in India reduced from 26 to 19, with the central government empowered to prescribe by rules the qualifications and service conditions of tribunal members?

  • A. The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
  • B. The Finance Act, 2017
  • C. The Commercial Courts Act, 2015
  • D. The Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021