UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Year of Reforms 2025: MoD records significant progress in implementing wide-ranging reforms

Q1. As announced by the Ministry of Defence on the eve of New Year 2025, how many broad thrust areas were identified under the 'Year of Reforms 2025' initiative?

  • A. Seven
  • B. Eight
  • C. Nine
  • D. Eleven

Q2. Under the 'Year of Reforms 2025', which one of the following is the apex body whose approvals during 2025 exceeded Rs 3.84 lakh crore in capital acquisition proposals for the Armed Forces?

  • A. Defence Planning Committee (DPC)
  • B. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
  • C. Defence Procurement Board (DPB)
  • D. Defence Production Board

Q3. With reference to the nine thrust areas declared by the Ministry of Defence under the 'Year of Reforms 2025', which of the following is/are correctly identified as a declared thrust area?

  1. Bolstering Jointness & Integration and facilitating Integrated Theatre Commands
  2. Effective Civil-Military Coordination to eliminate inefficiencies
  3. Full privatisation of all Defence Public Sector Undertakings by end-2025
  4. Welfare of veterans while leveraging their expertise
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q4. Who chairs the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), the apex body for capital acquisition under the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020?

  • A. The National Security Advisor
  • B. The Chief of Defence Staff
  • C. The Raksha Mantri (Union Minister of Defence)
  • D. The Cabinet Secretary

Q5. With reference to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) and the Defence Planning Committee (DPC), consider the following statements: 1. The DAC is chaired by the Defence Minister. 2. The Chief of Defence Staff is a member of the DAC. 3. The DPC is chaired by the National Security Advisor. 4. The National Security Advisor is an ex-officio member of the DAC. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. The DAC is chaired by the Defence Minister.
  2. The Chief of Defence Staff is a member of the DAC.
  3. The DPC is chaired by the National Security Advisor.
  4. The National Security Advisor is an ex-officio member of the DAC.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)? 1. According 'Acceptance of Necessity' (AoN) to capital acquisition proposals of the Armed Forces 2. Categorisation of acquisition proposals into 'Buy', 'Buy & Make' and 'Make' 3. Preparation and presentation of the Union Budget to Parliament 4. Taking decisions on 'offset' provisions in capital acquisition contracts

  1. According 'Acceptance of Necessity' (AoN) to capital acquisition proposals of the Armed Forces
  2. Categorisation of acquisition proposals into 'Buy', 'Buy & Make' and 'Make'
  3. Preparation and presentation of the Union Budget to Parliament
  4. Taking decisions on 'offset' provisions in capital acquisition contracts
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q7. With reference to the allocation of business between the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) and the Department of Defence (DoD) within the Ministry of Defence, consider the following statements:

  1. Capital acquisition proposals of the Armed Forces fall within the subjects allocated to the Department of Military Affairs.
  2. The Territorial Army is a subject allocated to the Department of Military Affairs.
  3. The Defence Acquisition Council, which clears capital acquisition proposals, is chaired by the Chief of Defence Staff in his capacity as Secretary, Department of Military Affairs.
  • A. 2 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Which one of the following officials serves as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee of the Indian Armed Forces?

  • A. The senior-most among the three Service Chiefs by date of commission
  • B. The Defence Secretary, Government of India
  • C. The Chief of Defence Staff
  • D. The National Security Advisor

Q9. With reference to the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) under the Ministry of Defence, which one of the following subjects is allocated exclusively to it as per the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961?

  • A. Capital acquisitions for the Armed Forces
  • B. Defence Research and Development
  • C. The Territorial Army
  • D. Defence Production

Q10. With reference to the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy for the defence sector as revised in September 2020 under the Atmanirbhar Bharat package, consider the following statements comparing the revised regime with the earlier regime: 1. The cap on FDI under the automatic route was raised from 49% to 74% for companies seeking new industrial licences. 2. Under the revised policy, FDI beyond 74% is permitted through the government route wherever it is likely to result in access to modern technology. 3. Unlike the earlier policy, the revised regime restricts FDI to Defence Public Sector Undertakings and excludes private companies holding industrial licences. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The cap on FDI under the automatic route was raised from 49% to 74% for companies seeking new industrial licences.
  2. Under the revised policy, FDI beyond 74% is permitted through the government route wherever it is likely to result in access to modern technology.
  3. Unlike the earlier policy, the revised regime restricts FDI to Defence Public Sector Undertakings and excludes private companies holding industrial licences.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Which of the following entities are correctly identified as Defence Public Sector Undertakings carved out of the Ordnance Factory Board through its corporatisation in 2021? 1. Yantra India Limited 2. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 3. Advanced Weapons and Equipment India Limited 4. Bharat Earth Movers Limited Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. Yantra India Limited
  2. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
  3. Advanced Weapons and Equipment India Limited
  4. Bharat Earth Movers Limited
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • D. 3 only

Q12. The SRIJAN portal, a key platform for indigenisation of defence items launched in August 2020, was launched by which one of the following?

  • A. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  • B. Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence
  • C. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
  • D. Department of Military Affairs (DMA)

Q13. As part of defence sector reforms, the Ordnance Factory Board was corporatised in 2021 into how many new Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs)?

  • A. Five
  • B. Seven
  • C. Nine
  • D. Eleven

Q14. Which one of the following Defence Public Sector Undertakings, along with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), is a founder member of the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO) that funds and manages the iDEX scheme?

  • A. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
  • B. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
  • C. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
  • D. BEML Limited

Q15. Match List I (Milestone in the legislative journey of the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023) with List II (Date) and select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  • B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  • C. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  • D. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Q16. With reference to the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023 as compared with the pre-existing legal regime governing the Armed Forces, consider the following statements: 1. Prior to the enactment of this Act, the Commander-in-Chief of an Inter-Services Organisation could exercise disciplinary powers over personnel drawn from a service other than his own. 2. Unlike the service-specific Army Act, 1950, Navy Act, 1957 and Air Force Act, 1950, the new Act repeals these earlier service-specific statutes and replaces them with a unified disciplinary code. 3. Although the Act received the assent of the President in 2023, the Rules operationalising its provisions were notified and brought into force only in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Prior to the enactment of this Act, the Commander-in-Chief of an Inter-Services Organisation could exercise disciplinary powers over personnel drawn from a service other than his own.
  2. Unlike the service-specific Army Act, 1950, Navy Act, 1957 and Air Force Act, 1950, the new Act repeals these earlier service-specific statutes and replaces them with a unified disciplinary code.
  3. Although the Act received the assent of the President in 2023, the Rules operationalising its provisions were notified and brought into force only in 2025.
  • A. 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q17. With reference to the existing tri-service / Inter-Services Organisations of the Indian Armed Forces brought within the ambit of the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023, consider the following: 1. Andaman and Nicobar Command 2. Defence Space Agency 3. National Defence Academy 4. Eastern Naval Command Which of the above is/are NOT an Inter-Services Organisation?

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Command
  2. Defence Space Agency
  3. National Defence Academy
  4. Eastern Naval Command
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q18. With reference to the 'AGNIPATH' scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in June 2022, consider the following statements: 1. Agniveers are enrolled into the Armed Forces for a period of four years. 2. Recruitment under the scheme is on an 'All India All Class' basis. 3. Agniveers are entitled to a non-contributory Life Insurance Cover of Rs 48 lakh during the period of engagement. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q19. With reference to the Agnipath scheme launched in 2022, which of the following is/are NOT a feature of the scheme as originally notified?

  1. Enrolment of Agniveers is undertaken on an 'All India All Class' basis.
  2. The eligible age for enrolment ranges from 17.5 to 21 years.
  3. All Agniveers are mandatorily granted permanent commission in the regular cadre on completion of four years.
  4. A non-contributory Life Insurance Cover of Rs 48 lakh is provided during the engagement period.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q20. Under the Agnipath scheme, what is the maximum percentage of each specific batch of Agniveers that may be enrolled in the regular cadre of the Armed Forces upon completion of the four-year engagement period?

  • A. 10 per cent
  • B. 20 per cent
  • C. 25 per cent
  • D. 33 per cent