UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Rashtriya Khanij Chintan Shivir concludes with focus on National Critical Mineral Mission and Sustainable Mining

Q1. Under the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), how many mineral exploration projects is the Geological Survey of India (GSI) targeted to undertake by 2030-31?

  • A. 500
  • B. 1,000
  • C. 1,200
  • D. 1,500

Q2. With reference to the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM), consider the following statements: 1. The Critical Mineral Mission was first announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. 2. The Union Cabinet approved the NCMM in January 2025. 3. The NCMM has a total outlay of ₹16,300 crore, financed entirely through government expenditure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Critical Mineral Mission was first announced in the Union Budget 2024-25.
  2. The Union Cabinet approved the NCMM in January 2025.
  3. The NCMM has a total outlay of ₹16,300 crore, financed entirely through government expenditure.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. With reference to India's list of critical minerals, consider the following statements: 1. The Ministry of Mines released India's first-ever list of critical minerals in 2023, identifying 30 minerals. 2. Of these, 24 minerals were included in Part D of Schedule-I of the MMDR Act. 3. The list was finalised by an expert committee constituted under NITI Aayog. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Ministry of Mines released India's first-ever list of critical minerals in 2023, identifying 30 minerals.
  2. Of these, 24 minerals were included in Part D of Schedule-I of the MMDR Act.
  3. The list was finalised by an expert committee constituted under NITI Aayog.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which one of the following was the first-ever comprehensive assessment identifying critical minerals for India?

  • A. The 2023 'Critical Minerals for India' report of the Ministry of Mines expert committee
  • B. The National Mineral Policy, 2019
  • C. The National Mineral Exploration Policy, 2016
  • D. The Geological Survey of India National Geochemical Mapping report

Q5. With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, consider the following statements: 1. It inserted 24 critical and strategic minerals in Part D of Schedule-I of the MMDR Act, 1957. 2. It empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction concessions for these minerals. 3. The entire revenue from the auction of these minerals accrues to the Central Government. 4. The revenue from the auction of these minerals accrues to the concerned State Government. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

  1. It inserted 24 critical and strategic minerals in Part D of Schedule-I of the MMDR Act, 1957.
  2. It empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction concessions for these minerals.
  3. The entire revenue from the auction of these minerals accrues to the Central Government.
  4. The revenue from the auction of these minerals accrues to the concerned State Government.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q6. Under the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, which single tier of government was designated as the sole authority empowered to auction the critical and strategic minerals listed in Part D of Schedule-I?

  • A. The Central Government
  • B. The concerned State Government
  • C. The District Mineral Foundation
  • D. The Indian Bureau of Mines

Q7. Which one of the following agencies serves as the e-auction platform provider for the auction of critical and strategic mineral blocks by the Ministry of Mines?

  • A. MSTC Limited
  • B. Indian Bureau of Mines
  • C. Geological Survey of India
  • D. Mineral Exploration and Consultancy Limited

Q8. In the first-ever tranche of critical and strategic mineral block auctions launched in November 2023, the largest share of the 20 blocks was offered for the grant of which type of concession?

  • A. Composite Licence
  • B. Mining Lease
  • C. Prospecting Licence
  • D. Reconnaissance Permit

Q9. With reference to the Rashtriya Khanij Chintan Shivir–2026, consider the following statements: 1. It was organised by the Ministry of Mines. 2. The 2026 edition was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. 3. A key objective was to strengthen Centre–State coordination in the mining sector. 4. It was organised by the Ministry of Coal as an extension of the coal-sector Chintan Shivir. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

  1. It was organised by the Ministry of Mines.
  2. The 2026 edition was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
  3. A key objective was to strengthen Centre–State coordination in the mining sector.
  4. It was organised by the Ministry of Coal as an extension of the coal-sector Chintan Shivir.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. The Star Rating System for mines in India is administered under which of the following?

  • A. Rule 35 of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, through the Indian Bureau of Mines
  • B. Section 9B of the MMDR Act, 1957, through the District Mineral Foundation
  • C. The National Mineral Policy, 2019, through the Geological Survey of India
  • D. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, through the Central Pollution Control Board

Q11. With reference to the constitutional and judicial framework of mining governance in India, consider the following statements: 1. Regulation of mines and mineral development under Union control falls under Entry 54 of the Union List. 2. Regulation of mines and mineral development, subject to Union List provisions, falls under Entry 23 of the State List. 3. In Mineral Area Development Authority v. Steel Authority of India (2024), the Supreme Court held that royalty on minerals is a form of tax. 4. The nine-judge Bench in that case upheld the legislative power of States to tax mineral rights. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Regulation of mines and mineral development under Union control falls under Entry 54 of the Union List.
  2. Regulation of mines and mineral development, subject to Union List provisions, falls under Entry 23 of the State List.
  3. In Mineral Area Development Authority v. Steel Authority of India (2024), the Supreme Court held that royalty on minerals is a form of tax.
  4. The nine-judge Bench in that case upheld the legislative power of States to tax mineral rights.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q12. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL), set up to secure overseas critical mineral assets, holds equity from three CPSEs. Which one of them holds the largest equity share in KABIL?

  • A. National Aluminium Company Ltd (NALCO)
  • B. Hindustan Copper Ltd (HCL)
  • C. Mineral Exploration and Consultancy Ltd (MECL)
  • D. Manganese Ore India Ltd (MOIL)