UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Year End Review of Ministry of Power - 2025

Q1. As per the Ministry of Power Year End Review 2025, what was the total power generation capacity added from all sources during FY 2025-26 (up to 31 January 2026)?

  • A. About 34,955 MW
  • B. About 39,657 MW
  • C. About 52,537 MW
  • D. About 4,613 MW

Q2. In the context of India crossing the 520.51 GW milestone reported in the Year End Review 2025, the term 'installed capacity' most precisely refers to which one of the following?

  • A. The maximum instantaneous electricity demand actually met by the grid
  • B. The total rated (nameplate) generating capacity of power plants connected to the grid, irrespective of actual output
  • C. The total units of electrical energy generated in the year
  • D. The renewable share of electricity supplied during peak demand periods

Q3. The projected all-India peak demand of 458 GW by 2032, cited in the Year End Review 2025, is drawn from which planning document, and under which statutory provision is it prepared?

  • A. National Electricity Plan, prepared by the CEA under Section 3 of the Electricity Act, 2003
  • B. National Tariff Policy, notified solely by NITI Aayog
  • C. The Integrated Energy Policy, always binding on every State
  • D. The National Electricity Policy, framed exclusively by the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission

Q4. Meeting the all-time-high peak demand with an energy shortage of just 0.03% depends on real-time balancing of the national grid. Which agency under the Ministry of Power is responsible for real-time operation of the national grid and load despatch?

  • A. Grid Controller of India Limited (Grid-India)
  • B. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID)
  • C. Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
  • D. NTPC Limited

Q5. With reference to the Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS), consider the following statements: 1. It has a total outlay of about Rs. 3.03 lakh crore for the period FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26. 2. It aims to reduce pan-India AT&C losses to 12-15%. 3. It aims to bring the ACS-ARR gap to zero. 4. It mandates 100% privatisation of all State-owned distribution companies. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It has a total outlay of about Rs. 3.03 lakh crore for the period FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26.
  2. It aims to reduce pan-India AT&C losses to 12-15%.
  3. It aims to bring the ACS-ARR gap to zero.
  4. It mandates 100% privatisation of all State-owned distribution companies.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 4 only

Q6. With reference to distribution-sector metrics reported in the Year End Review 2025 relative to the FY 2020-21 baseline, consider the following statements: 1. AT&C losses declined from 21.91% in FY 2020-21 to 16.16% (provisional). 2. The ACS-ARR gap narrowed from Rs. 0.69/kWh to Rs. 0.11/kWh. 3. RDSS has entirely replaced the Electricity Act, 2003 as the umbrella legislation governing electricity distribution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AT&C losses declined from 21.91% in FY 2020-21 to 16.16% (provisional).
  2. The ACS-ARR gap narrowed from Rs. 0.69/kWh to Rs. 0.11/kWh.
  3. RDSS has entirely replaced the Electricity Act, 2003 as the umbrella legislation governing electricity distribution.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. In the trajectory of power distribution reform schemes, 'SAUBHAGYA' stands for which one of the following?

  • A. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
  • B. Sampoorna Vidyut Yojana for Gram
  • C. Saubhagya Rural Grid Access Yojana
  • D. Sustainable Bijli Har Ghar Abhiyan

Q8. Among the following power distribution schemes, which one is the current flagship scheme launched most recently and under which the others' distribution-strengthening objectives now converge?

  • A. Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)
  • B. Integrated Power Development Scheme (IPDS)
  • C. SAUBHAGYA
  • D. Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS)

Q9. The 3.76 crore consumer smart meters reported as installed (as on 31 December 2025) are being deployed under which scheme?

  • A. Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS)
  • B. National Smart Grid Mission (NSGM)
  • C. SAUBHAGYA
  • D. Smart Cities Mission

Q10. Under the RDSS tribal electrification component, PVTG households are electrified in convergence with PM-JANMAN. Which ministry is responsible for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and leading PM-JANMAN?

  • A. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Power
  • C. Ministry of Rural Development
  • D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q11. Which one of the following is the nodal Union ministry that administers the Electricity Act, 2003 and steers the reforms captured in the Year End Review 2025?

  • A. Ministry of Power
  • B. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  • C. Ministry of Coal
  • D. Ministry of Heavy Industries

Q12. With reference to Inter-State Transmission System (ISTS) expansion for renewable energy as reported in the Year End Review 2025, consider the following statements: 1. About 335 GW of transmission network would be required to connect 280 GW of Variable Renewable Energy to the ISTS by 2030. 2. Around 25.8 GW of RE-linked ISTS projects worth about Rs. 38,849 crore were approved during January-November 2025. 3. The National Electricity Plan projects an all-India peak demand of 458 GW by 2032. 4. Planning and coordination of ISTS expansion for renewable-energy evacuation is carried out by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. About 335 GW of transmission network would be required to connect 280 GW of Variable Renewable Energy to the ISTS by 2030.
  2. Around 25.8 GW of RE-linked ISTS projects worth about Rs. 38,849 crore were approved during January-November 2025.
  3. The National Electricity Plan projects an all-India peak demand of 458 GW by 2032.
  4. Planning and coordination of ISTS expansion for renewable-energy evacuation is carried out by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 4
  • D. 4 only