UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — NUCLEAR SAFETY AND SECURITY

Q1. The regulatory and safety functions of the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), as specified in its 1983 Constitution Order, are those envisaged under how many sections of the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (Sections 16, 17 and 23)?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q2. With reference to the status of the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) before and after the SHANTI Act, 2025, consider the following statements: 1. The AERB was originally constituted in 1983 through an executive order of the Government and not by a statute. 2. The SHANTI Act, 2025 conferred statutory status on the AERB for the first time. 3. Even prior to the SHANTI Act, the AERB was made responsible directly to the Department of Atomic Energy rather than to the Atomic Energy Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The AERB was originally constituted in 1983 through an executive order of the Government and not by a statute.
  2. The SHANTI Act, 2025 conferred statutory status on the AERB for the first time.
  3. Even prior to the SHANTI Act, the AERB was made responsible directly to the Department of Atomic Energy rather than to the Atomic Energy Commission.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Under the SHANTI Act, 2025, which of the following activities are correctly identified as those over which the Government retains exclusive control (i.e. not opened to the private sector)? 1. Nuclear fuel production 2. Heavy water manufacturing 3. Radioactive waste management 4. Operation of nuclear power plants Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Nuclear fuel production
  2. Heavy water manufacturing
  3. Radioactive waste management
  4. Operation of nuclear power plants
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the SHANTI Act, 2025: 1. It permits private Indian companies and foreign entities to build, own and operate nuclear power plants. 2. It removes supplier liability, making the operator solely liable for compensation. 3. It confers statutory status on the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board. 4. It retains the exclusive monopoly of the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited over nuclear power generation. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It permits private Indian companies and foreign entities to build, own and operate nuclear power plants.
  2. It removes supplier liability, making the operator solely liable for compensation.
  3. It confers statutory status on the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board.
  4. It retains the exclusive monopoly of the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited over nuclear power generation.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q5. The Convention on Nuclear Safety (CNS) is frequently described as an 'incentive convention'. In this context, the expression most accurately means that the Convention:

  • A. relies on periodic peer review of self-reported national reports at review meetings, rather than on sanctions or an enforcement/control mechanism, to secure compliance
  • B. offers financial incentives from the IAEA to states that upgrade the safety of their nuclear installations
  • C. provides preferential access to civilian nuclear technology to contracting parties
  • D. makes membership conditional on ratification of the Non-Proliferation Treaty

Q6. Consider the following pairs of nuclear instruments and their year of entry into force: 1. Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (original) — 1987 2. Amendment to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material — 2016 3. Convention on Nuclear Safety — 1996 4. Convention on Early Notification of a Nuclear Accident — 1994 Which of the pairs given above is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material (original) — 1987
  2. Amendment to the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material — 2016
  3. Convention on Nuclear Safety — 1996
  4. Convention on Early Notification of a Nuclear Accident — 1994
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 4 only

Q7. The Global Centre for Nuclear Energy Partnership (GCNEP), set up as part of India's contribution to the global nuclear security architecture, functions under which one of the following?

  • A. Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
  • B. Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
  • C. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
  • D. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

Q8. Under the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, the term 'right of recourse' (Section 17) most precisely refers to the:

  • A. operator's right to recover, from the supplier or a culpable individual, the compensation the operator has already paid for nuclear damage
  • B. victim's right to claim compensation directly from the equipment supplier instead of the operator
  • C. operator's right to appeal against the compensation awarded by the Nuclear Damage Claims Commissioner
  • D. Central Government's right to recover from the operator any amount it pays out beyond the operator's liability cap

Q9. Under Section 17 of the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, the operator has a right of recourse in which of the following circumstances? 1. Where such right is expressly provided for in a written contract. 2. Where the nuclear incident results from an act of the supplier, including supply of equipment with patent or latent defects. 3. Where the nuclear incident results from an act of commission or omission of an individual done with intent to cause nuclear damage. 4. Where the nuclear incident is caused by a grave natural disaster of an exceptional character. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Where such right is expressly provided for in a written contract.
  2. Where the nuclear incident results from an act of the supplier, including supply of equipment with patent or latent defects.
  3. Where the nuclear incident results from an act of commission or omission of an individual done with intent to cause nuclear damage.
  4. Where the nuclear incident is caused by a grave natural disaster of an exceptional character.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. Which one of the following is the principal (parent) statute under which India's civilian nuclear establishment, including the DAE and the AERB, was structured prior to 2025?

  • A. Atomic Energy Act, 1962
  • B. Atomic Energy Act, 1948
  • C. Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
  • D. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Q11. With reference to the 10th Review Meeting of the Convention on Nuclear Safety (2026), consider the following statements: 1. The meeting marked thirty years of the Convention. 2. India's delegation was led by the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board. 3. Unlike earlier review meetings, the 10th Review Meeting was convened at India's initiative in New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The meeting marked thirty years of the Convention.
  2. India's delegation was led by the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board.
  3. Unlike earlier review meetings, the 10th Review Meeting was convened at India's initiative in New Delhi.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3