UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — ECI to host National Conference of State Election Commissioners
Q1. In the constitutional scheme, the 'State Election Commission' (Articles 243K and 243ZA) is best defined as the authority vested with the superintendence, direction and control of:
- A. elections to Panchayats and Municipalities only
- B. all elections within the State, including to the State Legislative Assembly
- C. elections to Panchayats, Municipalities and the Rajya Sabha seats allotted to the State
- D. preparation of electoral rolls for the House of the People within the State
Q2. Which one of the following is the primary constitutional provision that vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament and the State Legislatures in a single national body, the Election Commission of India?
- A. Article 324
- B. Article 243K
- C. Article 243ZA
- D. Article 325
Q3. Which one of the following Schedules was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 — the amendment devoted to the rural (Panchayati Raj) tier of local government?
- A. Eleventh Schedule
- B. Twelfth Schedule
- C. Tenth Schedule
- D. Ninth Schedule
Q4. With reference to the provisions introduced by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, 1992, consider the following:
1. Insertion of Part IX relating to Panchayats
2. Insertion of Part IXA relating to Municipalities
3. Mandatory constitution of a State Finance Commission to review the finances of local bodies
4. Constitution of the Inter-State Council to coordinate local-body administration
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- Insertion of Part IX relating to Panchayats
- Insertion of Part IXA relating to Municipalities
- Mandatory constitution of a State Finance Commission to review the finances of local bodies
- Constitution of the Inter-State Council to coordinate local-body administration
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 only
- C. 2 and 3
- D. 4 only
Q5. With reference to the 2026 National Conference of State Election Commissioners, consider the following:
1. It was convened by the Election Commission of India.
2. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
3. It was the first such national conference in over 25 years.
4. It was convened under Article 324 as a gathering exclusively of Chief Electoral Officers.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- It was convened by the Election Commission of India.
- It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
- It was the first such national conference in over 25 years.
- It was convened under Article 324 as a gathering exclusively of Chief Electoral Officers.
- A. 1 only
- B. 4 only
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 2 and 4
Q6. Chief Electoral Officers (CEOs), whose presence from all States/UTs was a feature of the 2026 conference, are most precisely defined as officers who:
- A. are designated by the ECI, in consultation with the State Government, to supervise Parliament and Assembly election work in a State/UT
- B. are appointed by the Governor to exclusively conduct panchayat and municipal elections in the State
- C. are the senior-most judges designated to hear all election petitions in the State
- D. are the administrative heads of the State Government tasked with framing electoral laws
Q7. With reference to the revival of the National Conference of State Election Commissioners in 2026, consider the following:
1. The last such national conference before 2026 was held in 1999.
2. The 2026 edition revived the forum after a gap of over 25 years.
3. The State Election Commissions whose harmonisation the conference sought derive their constitutional status from the 1992 amendments.
4. The 2026 edition was the first-ever conference of State Election Commissioners since independence.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The last such national conference before 2026 was held in 1999.
- The 2026 edition revived the forum after a gap of over 25 years.
- The State Election Commissions whose harmonisation the conference sought derive their constitutional status from the 1992 amendments.
- The 2026 edition was the first-ever conference of State Election Commissioners since independence.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q8. The Chief Electoral Officers (CEOs) of how many States and Union Territories participated in the 2026 National Conference of State Election Commissioners?
Q9. With reference to the appointment and removal of election authorities, consider the following:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed only in like manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. A State Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner as a Judge of a High Court.
3. A State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the State.
4. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the Governor.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed only in like manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- A State Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner as a Judge of a High Court.
- A State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the State.
- The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the Governor.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q10. With reference to the independence of the State Election Commission, consider the following:
1. Its incumbent's security of tenure is protected on the lines of the removal procedure for a High Court judge.
2. The conditions of service of a State Election Commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment.
3. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
4. The independence of the State Election Commission was affirmed by the Supreme Court in Kishan Singh Tomar v. Municipal Corporation, Ahmedabad (2006).
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- Its incumbent's security of tenure is protected on the lines of the removal procedure for a High Court judge.
- The conditions of service of a State Election Commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment.
- The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
- The independence of the State Election Commission was affirmed by the Supreme Court in Kishan Singh Tomar v. Municipal Corporation, Ahmedabad (2006).
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 4 only
- C. 2 and 4
- D. 3 only
Q11. The 2023 Act under which the incumbent Chief Election Commissioner — who assumed charge in 2025 — is appointed falls under the administrative purview of which one of the following Union Ministries?
- A. Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department)
- B. Ministry of Home Affairs
- C. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
- D. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Q12. With reference to the functions of the State Election Commission (SEC) as compared with the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
1. Unlike the ECI, the SEC is responsible for the conduct of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.
2. Like the ECI, the SEC exercises superintendence, direction and control over the preparation of electoral rolls for the elections it conducts.
3. The electoral rolls prepared by the ECI for Assembly elections are, by constitutional mandate, automatically adopted by the SEC for local-body elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Unlike the ECI, the SEC is responsible for the conduct of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.
- Like the ECI, the SEC exercises superintendence, direction and control over the preparation of electoral rolls for the elections it conducts.
- The electoral rolls prepared by the ECI for Assembly elections are, by constitutional mandate, automatically adopted by the SEC for local-body elections.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3