UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Pass Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026

Q1. With respect to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, which one of the following correctly identifies the single largest component of the 784 provisions it modifies?

  • A. 717 provisions decriminalised to promote Ease of Doing Business
  • B. 67 provisions amended to facilitate Ease of Living
  • C. 183 provisions converted from imprisonment to compounding
  • D. 355 provisions rationalised for procedural simplification

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023: 1. The 2026 Bill covers 79 Central Acts, whereas the 2023 Act covered 42 Central Acts. 2. Both legislations are piloted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). 3. The 2026 Bill is administered by fewer Ministries than the 2023 Act was. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2026 Bill covers 79 Central Acts, whereas the 2023 Act covered 42 Central Acts.
  2. Both legislations are piloted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
  3. The 2026 Bill is administered by fewer Ministries than the 2023 Act was.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative timeline of the Jan Vishwas reforms: 1. The predecessor Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 18 December 2025. 2. The Select Committee submitted its report on 13 March 2026. 3. The Lok Sabha passed the 2026 Bill on 1 April 2026. 4. The Rajya Sabha passed the 2026 Bill on 2 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The predecessor Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 18 December 2025.
  2. The Select Committee submitted its report on 13 March 2026.
  3. The Lok Sabha passed the 2026 Bill on 1 April 2026.
  4. The Rajya Sabha passed the 2026 Bill on 2 April 2026.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q4. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 — the predecessor introduced in the Lok Sabha on 18 August 2025 and later referred to a Select Committee — proposed to amend how many Central Acts?

  • A. 16
  • B. 42
  • C. 79
  • D. 355

Q5. Although the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 is piloted by a single nodal department (DPIIT), the Central Acts it amends are administered by exactly how many Ministries?

  • A. 10
  • B. 19
  • C. 23
  • D. 79

Q6. Consider the following entities in the context of the piloting and introduction of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026: 1. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) 2. Ministry of Commerce and Industry 3. Shri Jitin Prasada, Minister of State 4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs Which one of the above is NOT correctly associated with piloting or introducing the Bill?

  1. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
  2. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  3. Shri Jitin Prasada, Minister of State
  4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q7. The Select Committee of the Lok Sabha chaired by Shri Tejasvi Surya, which examined the Jan Vishwas Bill 2025, held how many sittings before submitting its report?

  • A. 9
  • B. 16
  • C. 49
  • D. 62

Q8. Consider the following statements about the Select Committee that examined the Jan Vishwas Bill 2025: 1. It was chaired by Shri Tejasvi Surya. 2. It was a Select Committee of the Lok Sabha. 3. It submitted its report on 13 March 2026. 4. It recommended decriminalisation across 65 additional Central Acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It was chaired by Shri Tejasvi Surya.
  2. It was a Select Committee of the Lok Sabha.
  3. It submitted its report on 13 March 2026.
  4. It recommended decriminalisation across 65 additional Central Acts.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q9. In the context of the Jan Vishwas reforms, the 'decriminalisation' of a provision is best defined as which one of the following?

  • A. Replacing criminal sanctions, particularly imprisonment, for minor or procedural defaults with graded civil/monetary penalties, while retaining criminal action for serious offences
  • B. Complete removal of all fines and penalties for the offence so that the conduct is no longer regulated
  • C. Repeal of the entire parent Act under which the offence was created
  • D. Transfer of the offence to fast-track criminal courts for speedier trial

Q10. Under the compliance-first design of the Jan Vishwas Bill 2026 (illustrated by the Apprentices Act, 1961), what is the primary response to a first-time minor procedural contravention?

  • A. An advisory or warning rather than an immediate monetary penalty
  • B. Immediate imposition of the maximum monetary penalty
  • C. A term of imprisonment reserved for repeat offenders
  • D. Automatic prosecution before an adjudicating officer

Q11. The first-generation Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised how many provisions?

  • A. 183
  • B. 355
  • C. 717
  • D. 784

Q12. The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2023 was referred to a Joint Committee of Parliament, which conducted clause-by-clause examination over how many sittings before adopting its report?

  • A. 9
  • B. 13
  • C. 42
  • D. 49